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Question 1 Report
Which of the following materials is a good insulator?
Answer Details
A good insulator is a material that does not easily allow heat or electricity to pass through it. It acts as a barrier, preventing the flow of heat or electricity. Out of the given options, rubber is a good insulator.
Rubber is made up of long chains of molecules that are closely packed together. These chains do not allow the easy movement of heat or electricity. This means that when heat or electricity tries to pass through rubber, it encounters resistance, making it difficult for it to flow.
In contrast, materials like silver, water, and copper are good conductors rather than insulators.
Silver is an excellent conductor of electricity and heat because its atoms have loosely bound electrons that are free to move. This allows for the easy transfer of heat or electricity throughout the material.
Water is also a good conductor of both heat and electricity. It contains charged particles called ions that can carry electric current. Additionally, water molecules are able to transfer heat through convection.
Copper is widely used in electrical wiring because it is an excellent conductor of electricity. Like silver, its atoms have free electrons that can move easily and transfer electrical energy.
Therefore, rubber is the material that serves as a good insulator, while silver, water, and copper are good conductors of heat and electricity.
Question 2 Report
How much net work is required to accelerate a 1200 kg car from 10 ms-1 to 15 ms-1
Answer Details
Question 3 Report
Find the tension in the two cords shown in the figure above. Neglect the mass of the cords, and assume that the angle is 38° and the mass m is 220 kg
[Take g = 9.8 ms-2]
Answer Details
W = mg = 220 x 9.8 = 2156 N
⇒Sin 38º = 2156T1
⇒ T1 = 2156Sin38
⇒ T1 = 3502 N
Cos 38º = T2T1
⇒ T2 = 3502 x Cos 38º
⇒ T2 = 2760 N
; T1
= 3502 N, T2
= 2760 N.
Question 4 Report
A man swung an object of mass 2 kg in a circular path with a rope 1.2 m long. If the object was swung at 120 rev/min, find the tension in the rope.
Answer Details
To find the tension in the rope, we can first use the formula for centripetal force, which is given by:
F_centripetal = (m * v^2) / r
where: - F_centripetal is the centripetal force - m is the mass of the object - v is the velocity of the object - r is the radius of the circular path
In this case, the mass of the object (m) is given as 2 kg and the radius (r) is given as 1.2 m.
Now, to find the velocity (v), we need to convert the given value of 120 rev/min to m/s.
Here's how we can do that:
1. First, convert the revolutions per minute (rev/min) to revolutions per second (rev/s) by dividing by 60 (since there are 60 seconds in a minute):
120 rev/min = 120/60 rev/s = 2 rev/s
2. Next, we need to convert the revolutions per second to the linear velocity in meters per second (m/s). To do this, we need to find the circumference of the circular path.
The circumference of a circle is given by the formula:
C = 2πr where r is the radius of the circular path.
Substituting the value of the radius (r = 1.2 m) into the formula, we have:
C = 2π * 1.2 = 2.4π Now, to find the linear velocity (v), we can multiply the circumference (C) by the number of revolutions per second (2 rev/s):
v = C * rev/s = 2.4π * 2 = 4.8π m/s
Now that we have the values of m (2 kg) and v (4.8π m/s), we can substitute them into the centripetal force formula to find the tension in the rope:
F_centripetal = (m * v^2) / r = (2 * (4.8π)^2) / 1.2
Simplifying further:
F_centripetal = (2 * 23.04π^2) / 1.2
F_centripetal = 38.4π^2
Finally, to get a numerical value for the tension in the rope, we can approximate the value of π to 3.14 and calculate the centripetal force:
F_centripetal ≈ 38.4 * 3.14^2 ≈ 379 N
Therefore, the tension in the rope is approximately 379 N.
Therefore, the correct answer is 379.
Question 5 Report
The near point of a patient's eye is 50.0 cm. What power (in diopters) must a corrective lens have to enable the eye to see clearly an object 25.0 cm away?
Question 6 Report
How much work is done against the gravitational force on a 3.0 kg object when it is carried from the ground floor to the roof of a building, a vertical climb of 240 m?
Answer Details
To calculate the work done against gravitational force, we can use the formula:
Work = Force x Distance
In this case, the force we are working against is the gravitational force. The gravitational force is the force with which the Earth pulls objects towards its center. The formula for gravitational force is:
Force = Mass x Acceleration due to gravity
The mass of the object is given as 3.0 kg. The acceleration due to gravity on Earth is approximately 9.8 m/s^2.
Now, we need to find the distance the object is being carried, which is 240 m.
Plugging these values into the formulas, we have:
Force = 3.0 kg x 9.8 m/s^2 = 29.4 N
Work = 29.4 N x 240 m
Therefore, the work done against the gravitational force is equal to 29.4 N x 240 m = 7056 J = 7.1 kJ (rounded to one decimal place).
So, the correct answer is 7.2 kJ.
Question 7 Report
Which of the following types of electromagnetic waves is used in night vision goggles?
Answer Details
Night vision goggles use infrared waves to enable the user to see in the dark.
Infrared waves are a type of electromagnetic radiation that have longer wavelengths than visible light. They fall between the visible and microwave regions on the electromagnetic spectrum. Unlike visible light, which is visible to the human eye, infrared waves cannot be seen without the use of specialized devices such as night vision goggles.
When it is dark, objects do not emit visible light that can be detected by the human eye. However, they do emit heat in the form of infrared radiation. Night vision goggles work by detecting and amplifying this infrared radiation, which is then converted into visible light that can be seen by the user.
The goggles contain an image intensifier tube that is sensitive to infrared radiation. This tube amplifies the incoming infrared light and converts it into an image that can be seen through the goggles. The resulting image appears green because the human eye is more sensitive to green light.
Therefore, to see in the dark, night vision goggles use infrared waves to detect and amplify the infrared radiation emitted by objects. This enables the user to have enhanced vision in low-light conditions or complete darkness.
Question 8 Report
Light of wavelength 589 nm in vacuum passes through a piece of fused quartz of index of refraction n = 1.458. What is the frequency of the light in fused quartz?
[Speed of light c = 3 *10^8ms-1]
Question 9 Report
Which of the following is NOT an example of elementary modern physics?
Answer Details
Classical mechanics is a branch of physics that deals with the motion of macroscopic objects. It is based on the principles of Newton's laws of motion and is not considered to be part of elementary modern physics.
The other three options, quantum mechanics, special relativity, and nuclear physics, are all considered to be part of elementary modern physics because they deal with the behavior of matter and energy at the atomic and subatomic levels.
Question 10 Report
Rainbow formation is as a result of the combination of which of the following phenomena?
(i) Reflection
(ii) Dispersion
(iii) Total internal reflection
(iv) Refraction
Answer Details
As light ray enters a drop of water the light is refracted at the surface and at the end of the drop, it is totally internally reflected in which the reflected light returns to the front surface, where it again undergoes refraction as it moves from water to air. The result of this is a dispersed light of colours of different wavelengths.
Question 11 Report
A 400 N box is being pushed across a level floor at a constant speed by a force P of 100 N at an angle of 30.0° to the horizontal, as shown in the the diagram below. What is the coefficient of kinetic friction between the box and the floor?
Answer Details
W = 400 N; P = 100 N; θ = 30o; μ = ?
Frictional force (Fr) = μR (where R is the normal reaction)
The forces acting along the horizontal direction are Fr and Px
∴ Pcos 30° - Fr = ma (Pcos 30° is acting in the +ve x-axis while Fr in the -ve x-axis)
⇒ 100cos 30° - μR = ma
Since the box is moving at constant speed, its acceleration is zero
⇒ 100cos 30° - μR = 0
⇒ 100cos 30o = μR ----- (i)
The forces acting in the vertical direction are W, Py and R
∴ R - Psin 30° - W = 0 (R is acting upward (+ve) while Py and W are acting downward (-ve) and they are at equilibrium)
⇒ R - 100sin 30° - 400 = 0
⇒ R = 100sin 30° + 400
⇒ R = 50 + 400 = 450 N
From equation (i)
⇒ 100cos 30° = 450μ
⇒μ=100cos30°
N = 100cos30°450
= μ = 0.19
Question 12 Report
Which of the following is/are not true about the heat capacity of a substance?
(i) It is an intensive property
(ii) Its S.I unit is jK−1
(iii) It is an extensive property
(iv) Its S.I unit is jkg−1
Answer Details
The correct answer is (ii) and (iii) only. The heat capacity of a substance is a measure of how much heat energy is required to raise the temperature of the substance by a certain amount. It is an important property in thermodynamics. (i) It is not true that heat capacity is an intensive property. Intensive properties do not depend on the size or amount of the substance. For example, density and temperature are intensive properties. However, heat capacity does depend on the size or amount of the substance. The heat capacity of a substance increases with its mass or amount. Therefore, statement (i) is false. (ii) It is true that the SI unit of heat capacity is joules per kelvin (J/K). Heat capacity is defined as the amount of heat energy (in joules) required to raise the temperature of a substance by 1 degree kelvin. Therefore, statement (ii) is true. (iii) It is not true that heat capacity is an extensive property. Extensive properties depend on the size or amount of the substance. Examples of extensive properties include mass and volume. However, heat capacity is an intensive property as explained earlier. Therefore, statement (iii) is false. (iv) It is true that the SI unit of heat capacity is joules per kilogram per kelvin (J/(kg·K)). This unit is commonly used for specific heat capacity, which is the heat capacity per unit mass. Therefore, statement (iv) is true. In summary, the correct statement is that (ii) and (iii) are not true about the heat capacity of a substance.
Question 13 Report
Question 14 Report
The half life of a radioactive material is 12 days. Calculate the decay constant.
Answer Details
The decay constant of a radioactive material represents the probability that an atom of the material will decay in a unit of time. In this case, we are given the half-life of the material which is the time it takes for half of the radioactive atoms to decay.
The relationship between the decay constant (λ) and the half-life (T½) is given by the formula:
λ = ln(2) / T½
where ln(2) is the natural logarithm of 2.
To find the decay constant, we can plug in the given half-life value into the formula. In this case, the half-life is 12 days.
λ = ln(2) / 12
Using a calculator, we can calculate the value of ln(2) ≈ 0.6931.
λ = 0.6931 / 12 ≈ 0.05775 day^(-1)
Therefore, the decay constant for this radioactive material is approximately 0.05775 day^(-1).
The correct answer is 0.05775 day^(-1).
Question 15 Report
Which process is responsible for production of energy in stars?
Answer Details
The process responsible for the production of energy in stars is nuclear fusion.
Nuclear fusion is the process where two or more atomic nuclei come together to form a heavier nucleus. In stars, the fusion of hydrogen nuclei (protons) into helium nuclei is the main source of energy.
Here's how it works:
This ongoing fusion process in stars is called stellar nucleosynthesis. It occurs throughout the star's lifetime until the available hydrogen in the core is depleted. At this point, depending on the star's mass, different fusion reactions may take place, leading to the production of heavier elements.
In summary, nuclear fusion, the fusion of hydrogen nuclei into helium nuclei, is the process responsible for the production of energy in stars.
Question 16 Report
An air bubble of radius 4.5 cm initially at a depth of 12 m below the water surface rises to the surface. If the atmospheric pressure is equal to 10.34 m of water, the radius of the bubble just before it reaches the water surface is
Question 17 Report
Which of the following is a type of wave that is both mechanical and longitudinal?
Answer Details
A wave that is both mechanical and longitudinal is sound waves.
Sound waves are created by the vibration of an object, such as a speaker, which causes the air particles around it to vibrate. These vibrations then travel through the air in the form of a wave.
Sound waves are classified as mechanical waves because they require a medium, such as air, water, or solid objects, to travel through. Without a medium, sound waves cannot propagate.
Furthermore, sound waves are classified as longitudinal waves because the particles in the medium vibrate parallel to the direction of the wave. This means that as the sound wave travels, the particles in the medium move back and forth in the same direction as the wave itself.
In contrast, water waves and seismic waves are mechanical waves, but they are not longitudinal. Water waves are categorized as transverse waves because the particles in the water move up and down at right angles to the direction of the wave. Seismic waves, which include earthquake waves, can be both transverse and longitudinal, but typically the primary seismic waves are classified as transverse waves.
Lastly, light waves are not mechanical waves but rather electromagnetic waves. They do not require a medium to travel through and can propagate in a vacuum, unlike sound waves.
Question 18 Report
A parallel plate capacitor separated by an air gap is made of 0.8m2 tin plates and 20 mm apart. It is connected to 120 V battery. What is the charge on each plate?
Take εo = 8.85 * 10-12 Fm−1
Answer Details
To calculate the charge on each plate of a parallel plate capacitor, we can use the formula Q = CV, where Q is the charge, C is the capacitance, and V is the voltage applied. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor can be calculated using the formula C = εA/d, where C is the capacitance, ε is the permittivity of the medium (in this case, air), A is the area of each plate, and d is the distance between the plates. Given: Area of each plate (A) = 0.8 m^2 Distance between the plates (d) = 20 mm = 0.02 m Permittivity of air (ε) = 8.85 x 10^-12 F/m Using the formula for capacitance, we can calculate C: C = εA/d = (8.85 x 10^-12 F/m)(0.8 m^2)/(0.02 m) = 8.85 x 10^-12 F/m * 40 F = 3.54 x 10^-10 F Now, we can use the formula Q = CV to calculate the charge on each plate: Q = (3.54 x 10^-10 F)(120 V) = 4.25 x 10^-8 C = 42.5 x 10^-9 C = 42.5 nC Therefore, the charge on each plate of the parallel plate capacitor is **42.5 nC**.
Question 19 Report
Which of the following is NOT a limitation of experimental measurements?
Answer Details
Instrument resolution is not a limitation of experimental measurements. It is the smallest change in a measured quantity that can be detected by an instrument. While instrument resolution limits the accuracy of a measurement, it is not a limitation of experimental measurements itself.
Question 20 Report
A generator manufacturing company accidentally made an AC generator instead of a DC generator. To fix this error,
Answer Details
An AC generator uses slip rings to transfer the induced current smoothly to the circuit. A DC generator uses split rings to transfer the induced current to the circuit and also convert the induced AC into pulsating DC. So, to convert an AC generator into a DC generator, the slip rings needs to be replaced with split rings.
Question 21 Report
Which of the following statements is correct about the angle of dip at various points on Earth?
Answer Details
The correct statement about the angle of dip at various points on Earth is: The angle of dip is zero at the equator and 90 degrees at the magnetic poles.
The angle of dip, also known as the inclination, refers to the angle between the Earth's magnetic field lines and the horizontal plane at a specific location. It tells us how much the magnetic field lines of the Earth are inclined or tilted at that point.
At the equator, the angle of dip is zero. This means that the magnetic field lines are parallel to the horizontal plane. As we move closer to the magnetic poles, the angle of dip increases. At the magnetic poles, the angle of dip is 90 degrees, indicating that the magnetic field lines are perpendicular to the horizontal plane.
The second statement that the angle of dip is greater at higher altitudes than at lower altitudes is incorrect. The angle of dip is primarily affected by the latitude or distance from the equator and the proximity to the magnetic poles, rather than the altitude. So, the angle of dip remains consistent at a specific latitude regardless of the altitude above sea level.
The third statement that the angle of dip is positive in the northern hemisphere and negative in the southern hemisphere is also incorrect. The angle of dip is positive in the northern hemisphere and negative in the southern hemisphere. This means that the magnetic field lines are inclined downwards in the northern hemisphere and upwards in the southern hemisphere.
The fourth statement that the angle of dip is constant at all points on Earth is incorrect as well. The angle of dip varies depending on the latitude and the proximity to the magnetic poles, as explained earlier. So, it is not constant across all points on Earth.
To summarize, the correct statement is that the angle of dip is zero at the equator and 90 degrees at the magnetic poles. It is important to note that the angle of dip is not affected by altitude but is primarily determined by latitude and proximity to the magnetic poles.
Question 22 Report
In the diagram above, if the south poles of two magnets stroke a steel bar, the polarities at X and Y will respectively be
Answer Details
The polarities at X and Y would be north and north.
Question 23 Report
A metal sphere is placed on an insulating stand. A negatively charged rod is brought close to it. If the sphere is earthed and the rod is taken away, what will be the charge on the sphere?
Answer Details
When a negatively charged rod is brought close to a metal sphere, the free electrons in the sphere are repelled from the rod and move to the other end of the sphere. This creates a region of positive charge on the side of the sphere closest to the rod, and a region of negative charge on the opposite side. The process of charge distribution stops when the net force on the free electrons inside the metal is equal to zero.
If the sphere is then earthed, the free electrons will flow from the sphere to the ground, leaving the sphere with a net positive charge.
Question 24 Report
A 35 kΩ is connected in series with a resistance of 40 kΩ. What resistance R must be connected in parallel with the combination so that the equivalent resistance is equal to 25 kΩ?
Answer Details
For the combination in series;
⇒R1 = 35kΩ + 40kΩ = 75kΩ
R is combined with 75kΩ in parallel to give 25kΩ
= 1Req
= 1R
+ 1R
= 125
= 1R
+ 175
= 125
- 175
+ 1R
= 3−175
= 1R
= 275
= 1R
= 752
= R
; R = 37.5k Ω
Question 25 Report
From the diagram above, if the potential difference across the resistor, capacitor and inductor are 60V, 120V and 30V respectively, the effective potential difference is
Answer Details
Question 26 Report
A beam of light traveling in water is incident on a glass which is immersed in the water. The incident beam makes an angle of 40o
with the normal. Calculate the angle of refraction in the glass.
[Refractive index of water = 1.33, Refractive index of glass = 1.5]
Question 27 Report
The sensitivity of a thermometer is
Answer Details
The sensitivity of a thermometer refers to the smallest temperature change that it can detect or measure. In other words, it measures how fine or precise the thermometer is in detecting changes in temperature. A thermometer with high sensitivity is able to detect even small changes in temperature, while a thermometer with low sensitivity may only detect larger temperature fluctuations.
Therefore, in the given options, the statement "the smallest temperature change that can be detected or measured" accurately describes the sensitivity of a thermometer.
Question 28 Report
When a water droplet is placed on a freshly cut piece of wood, it spreads out to form a thin layer because the wood is
Answer Details
When a water droplet is placed on a freshly cut piece of wood, it spreads out to form a thin layer because the wood is adhesive to water.
Adhesion is the attraction between different substances, in this case, water and wood. Wood is a porous material, meaning it has tiny holes or gaps in its surface. These tiny holes create a large surface area for the water droplet to interact with.
When the water droplet comes into contact with the wood, the adhesive forces between the water molecules and the wood molecules are stronger than the cohesive forces between the water molecules. This causes the water droplet to spread out, trying to maximize its contact with the wood surface.
The spreading out of the water droplet forms a thin layer because the wood surface is not completely smooth. Instead, it has irregularities and imperfections, which allow the water to seep into those gaps and spread out further.
Therefore, when a water droplet is placed on a freshly cut piece of wood, it spreads out to form a thin layer due to the adhesive forces between the water and the wood surface.
Question 29 Report
On a particular hot day, the temperature is 40°C and the partial pressure of water vapor in the air is 38.8 mmHg. What is the relative humidity?
Answer Details
To calculate the relative humidity, we need to understand the concept of saturation and how much water vapor the air can hold at a given temperature.
Saturation is the point at which the air is holding the maximum amount of water vapor it can hold at a particular temperature. Once the air reaches saturation, any additional moisture will start to condense into liquid water.
The amount of water vapor that the air can hold increases with temperature. Warmer air can hold more water vapor, while cooler air can hold less.
Now, let's calculate the relative humidity using the given information:
1. Find the saturation vapor pressure at 40°C: - The saturation vapor pressure is the maximum amount of water vapor the air can hold at a specific temperature. - At 40°C, the saturation vapor pressure is approximately 55.3 mmHg.
2. Calculate the relative humidity: - Relative humidity is the ratio of the current partial pressure of water vapor to the saturation vapor pressure, expressed as a percentage. - Relative Humidity = (Partial pressure of water vapor / Saturation vapor pressure) * 100 - In this case, the partial pressure of water vapor is 38.8 mmHg and the saturation vapor pressure at 40°C is 55.3 mmHg. - Plugging in these values into the formula, we get: Relative Humidity = (38.8 mmHg / 55.3 mmHg) * 100 = 70.2%
Therefore, the relative humidity on this particular hot day is approximately 70%.
Answer: The correct option is 70.
Question 30 Report
What is the name of the model of the atom that describes electrons as orbiting the nucleus in specific energy levels?
Answer Details
The name of the model of the atom that describes electrons as orbiting the nucleus in specific energy levels is the Bohr model.
The Bohr model was proposed by Danish physicist Niels Bohr in 1913. According to this model, electrons revolve around the nucleus in specific energy levels or shells. Each energy level corresponds to a certain amount of energy that an electron possesses. The energy levels are represented by whole numbers, with the closest energy level to the nucleus having the lowest energy and subsequent energy levels having higher energies.
Bohr's model also stated that electrons can only exist in certain fixed orbits around the nucleus. These orbits have a specific distance from the nucleus and are called stationary states. Electrons can move between these energy levels by absorbing or emitting energy in the form of photons.
The Bohr model successfully explained the observed emission and absorption spectra of atoms, as well as the stability of atoms. However, it has limitations in fully describing the behavior of electrons. It does not accurately represent the path or trajectory of electrons and does not account for other quantum effects.
Overall, the Bohr model provides a simplified and understandable framework for visualizing the arrangement of electrons in an atom, with electrons occupying specific energy levels or shells around the nucleus.
Question 31 Report
A step-down transformer is used on a 2.2 kV line to deliver 110 V. How many turns are on the primary windings if the secondary has 25 turns?
Answer Details
To determine the number of turns on the primary winding of a step-down transformer, we need to understand how a transformer works and how the voltage is transformed from the primary to the secondary winding.
A transformer operates on the principle of electromagnetic induction. When an alternating current flows through the primary winding, it creates a changing magnetic field that induces a voltage in the secondary winding.
The voltage ratio between the primary and secondary windings is determined by the ratio of the number of turns in each winding. This means that if we decrease the number of turns in the secondary winding compared to the primary winding, we can reduce the voltage output.
In this case, we are given that the secondary winding has 25 turns and we want to deliver 110 V. The primary winding has a higher voltage, which is 2.2 kV (kilovolts) or 2200 V.
To determine the number of turns on the primary winding, we can set up a simple equation using the voltage ratios:
Primary voltage / Secondary voltage = Primary winding turns / Secondary winding turns
Plugging in the values we have:
2200 V / 110 V = Primary winding turns / 25 turns
Simplifying the equation:
20 = Primary winding turns / 25
To solve for the number of turns on the primary winding, we can cross multiply:
20 x 25 = Primary winding turns
Therefore, the number of turns on the primary winding is 500.
So, the correct answer is 500.
Question 32 Report
A simple pendulum, has a period of 5.77 seconds. When the pendulum is shortened by 3 m, the period is 4.60 seconds. Calculate the new length of the pendulum
Question 33 Report
The pinhole camera works on
Answer Details
The pinhole camera works on the principle of the rectilinear propagation of light. This principle states that light travels in straight lines. When light passes through the tiny hole in a pinhole camera, it forms an inverted image on the opposite side of the camera. The size of the image depends on the distance between the object and the pinhole.
Question 34 Report
A wire of radius 0.2 mm is extended by 0.5% of its length when supported by a load of 1.5 kg. Determine the Young's modulus for the material of the wire.
[Take g = 10 ms-2]
Question 35 Report
A missile is launched with a speed of 75 ms-1 at an angle of 22° above the surface of a warship. Find the horizontal range achieved by the missile. Ignore the effects of air resistance.
[Take g = 10 ms-1]
Question 36 Report
In an AC circuit, resonance occurs when the impedance of the circuit is:
Answer Details
In an AC circuit, resonance occurs when the impedance of the circuit is minimum.
Impedance is the total opposition to the flow of alternating current in a circuit, and it consists of two components: resistance (R) and reactance (X).
Reactance can be further divided into two types: inductive reactance (XL) and capacitive reactance (XC).
At resonance, the inductive reactance and the capacitive reactance are equal in magnitude and opposite in sign. This means that their effects cancel each other out, resulting in a minimum total reactance.
Since impedance is the combination of resistance and reactance, when the reactance is at its minimum, the impedance of the circuit is also at its minimum.
So, in summary, resonance occurs in an AC circuit when the impedance is minimum. At resonance, the inductive reactance and the capacitive reactance cancel each other out, resulting in a minimum total reactance and minimum impedance.
Question 37 Report
Which of the following is a type of incandescent light source?
Answer Details
The Tungsten filament lamp is a type of incandescent light source.
An incandescent light source works by using electricity to heat a filament inside the bulb until it becomes so hot that it emits light. In a tungsten filament lamp, the filament is made of tungsten, which is a metal that has a very high melting point. This allows the filament to get extremely hot without melting.
When an electric current passes through the filament, it heats up and starts to glow, producing visible light. The light emitted by a tungsten filament lamp is actually a result of the high temperature, which causes the atoms in the filament to vibrate and release energy in the form of light.
Incandescent light sources like tungsten filament lamps have been widely used for many years because they produce a warm, yellowish light that is similar to natural sunlight. However, they are not very energy-efficient, as a significant amount of the electrical energy is converted into heat rather than light.
In recent years, there has been a shift towards more energy-efficient alternatives like LED lamps and fluorescent lamps. LED lamps use a different mechanism to produce light, using a semiconductor that emits light when electric current passes through it. Fluorescent lamps use a gas-filled tube that emits ultraviolet light when electric current flows through it, and this ultraviolet light is then converted into visible light by a phosphor coating inside the tube.
So, in summary, the tungsten filament lamp is the type of incandescent light source among the options given. It works by heating a tungsten filament to a very high temperature, causing it to emit light. However, it is less energy-efficient compared to LED and fluorescent lamps.
Question 38 Report
The property of wave shown in the diagram above is?
Answer Details
The property of the wave shown in the diagram is diffraction.
Diffraction is the bending or spreading out of waves as they encounter an obstacle or pass through an opening. It occurs when waves encounter an obstacle that is comparable in size to their wavelength.
In the diagram, you can see that the wave is encountering an opening or a slit, and as a result, it is spreading out or bending around the edges of the opening. This bending or spreading out is characteristic of diffraction.
Diffraction is an important phenomenon in wave behavior and is observed in various situations, such as when sound waves pass through a doorway or when light waves pass through a narrow slit. It helps us understand how waves interact with obstacles and openings in their path.
In summary, the property of the wave shown in the diagram is diffraction, which is the bending or spreading out of waves as they encounter an obstacle or pass through an opening.
Question 39 Report
When light of a certain frequency is incident on a metal surface, no photoelectrons are emitted. If the frequency of the light is increased, what happens to the stopping potential?
Answer Details
When light of a certain frequency is incident on a metal surface, no photoelectrons are emitted. This is because the energy of the photons in the light is not enough to overcome the work function of the metal, which is the minimum amount of energy required to remove an electron from the metal surface.
If the frequency of the light is increased, it means that the energy of the photons increases. This increase in energy means that there is now enough energy to overcome the work function of the metal. As a result, photoelectrons are now emitted from the metal surface.
Now, let's consider the stopping potential. The stopping potential is the minimum potential difference that needs to be applied across a pair of electrodes in order to stop the flow of photoelectrons from reaching the other electrode.
When the frequency of the light is increased, the energy of the photons also increases. This means that the photoelectrons have more kinetic energy when they are emitted from the metal surface. As a result, a higher stopping potential is required to stop the more energetic photoelectrons from reaching the other electrode.
Therefore, the stopping potential increases when the frequency of the light is increased.
Question 40 Report
Which of the following thermometers measures temperature from the thermal radiation emitted by objects?
Answer Details
A pyrometer thermometer measures temperature from the thermal radiation emitted by objects.
When objects are heated, they emit thermal radiation, which is a form of electromagnetic radiation. This radiation is primarily in the infrared wavelength range. A pyrometer thermometer is specifically designed to measure the intensity of this thermal radiation and convert it into a temperature reading.
The pyrometer thermometer works based on the principle of measuring the amount of thermal radiation reaching the sensor. This is done using a detector that is sensitive to the infrared wavelength range. The detector absorbs the thermal radiation emitted by the object and generates an electrical signal proportional to the intensity of the radiation.
The electrical signal from the detector is then processed by the thermometer's electronics to calculate and display the corresponding temperature. The calibration of the thermometer ensures accurate temperature readings based on the known relationship between the intensity of thermal radiation and temperature.
Pyrometer thermometers are commonly used in industrial applications where contact-based temperature measurement methods are not feasible or accurate enough. They can measure temperatures of objects from a distance without physically touching them, which makes them suitable for measuring high temperatures, moving objects, or objects in hazardous or inaccessible environments.
Therefore, the pyrometer thermometer is the correct option for measuring temperature from thermal radiation emitted by objects.
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