JAMB UTME - Physics - 2023

A travelling wave of amplitude 0.80 m has a frequency of 16 Hz and a wave speed of 20 ms-1

Calculate the wave number of the wave.

Answer Details

The wave number of a wave is defined as the number of wavelengths per unit distance. It represents the spatial frequency of the wave.
In this case, the wave has a frequency of 16 Hz, which means it completes 16 cycles or oscillations per second. Each cycle corresponds to one wavelength.
The wave speed is given as 20 m/s, which is the speed at which the wave propagates through the medium.
To calculate the wave number, we can use the formula:
Wave number (k) = 2? / wavelength (?)
First, we need to find the wavelength of the wave. We can use the formula:
Wave speed (v) = frequency (f) x wavelength (?)
Rewriting the formula, we have:
Wavelength (?) = wave speed (v) / frequency (f)
Substituting the given values, we have:
Wavelength (?) = 20 m/s / 16 Hz
Simplifying the expression, we get:
Wavelength (?) = 1.25 m
Now, we can calculate the wave number using the formula:
Wave number (k) = 2? / wavelength (?)
Substituting the value of the wavelength, we get:
Wave number (k) = 2? / 1.25 m
Simplifying the expression, we get:
Wave number (k) ? 5.03
Therefore, the wave number of the wave is approximately 5.

A wire of radius 0.2 mm is extended by 0.5% of its length when supported by a load of 1.5 kg. Determine the Young's modulus for the material of the wire.

[Take g = 10 ms-2]

Answer Details

Which of the following is/are not true about the heat capacity of a substance?
(i) It is an intensive property
(ii) Its S.I unit is jK−1
(iii) It is an extensive property
(iv) Its S.I unit is jkg−1

Answer Details

The correct answer is (ii) and (iii) only. The heat capacity of a substance is a measure of how much heat energy is required to raise the temperature of the substance by a certain amount. It is an important property in thermodynamics. (i) It is not true that heat capacity is an intensive property. Intensive properties do not depend on the size or amount of the substance. For example, density and temperature are intensive properties. However, heat capacity does depend on the size or amount of the substance. The heat capacity of a substance increases with its mass or amount. Therefore, statement (i) is false. (ii) It is true that the SI unit of heat capacity is joules per kelvin (J/K). Heat capacity is defined as the amount of heat energy (in joules) required to raise the temperature of a substance by 1 degree kelvin. Therefore, statement (ii) is true. (iii) It is not true that heat capacity is an extensive property. Extensive properties depend on the size or amount of the substance. Examples of extensive properties include mass and volume. However, heat capacity is an intensive property as explained earlier. Therefore, statement (iii) is false. (iv) It is true that the SI unit of heat capacity is joules per kilogram per kelvin (J/(kg·K)). This unit is commonly used for specific heat capacity, which is the heat capacity per unit mass. Therefore, statement (iv) is true. In summary, the correct statement is that (ii) and (iii) are not true about the heat capacity of a substance.

A 200 kg load is raised using a 110 m long lever as shown in the diagram above. The load is 10m from the pivot P. If the efficiency of the the lever is 80%, find the effort E required to lift the load.

[Take g = 10ms-2]

Answer Details

To find the effort E required to lift the load, we first need to understand the concept of mechanical efficiency in levers.
A lever is a simple machine that consists of a rigid beam (lever arm) that pivots around a fixed point called the fulcrum. In this case, the fulcrum is point P.
The mechanical efficiency of a lever is defined as the ratio of the output work done (load lifted) to the input work done (effort applied). Mathematically, it can be expressed as:
Efficiency = (Output Work / Input Work) * 100%
In this problem, the load is the output work and the effort is the input work.
Given: Load = 200 kg Length of lever (distance between fulcrum and load) = 10 m Efficiency = 80% Gravitational acceleration (g) = 10 m/s^2
To calculate the effort, let's first calculate the output work:
Output Work = Load * Distance lifted
The distance lifted is equal to the length of the lever arm, which is 10 m.
Output Work = 200 kg * 10 m = 2000 kg·m
Since 1 kg·m is equivalent to 10 J (1 Joule), we can convert the units:
Output Work = 2000 kg·m * 10 J/kg·m = 20000 J
Now, let's calculate the input work:
Input Work = Effort * Distance moved by the effort
The distance moved by the effort is the length of the lever arm, which is 110 m.
Input Work = Effort * 110 m
Using the formula for mechanical efficiency, we can rewrite it as:
Efficiency = (Output Work / Input Work) * 100%
Solving for the effort:
Effort = (Output Work / (Efficiency/100)) / Distance moved by the effort
Effort = (20000 J / (80/100)) / 110 m
Simplifying the equation:
Effort = (20000 J / 0.8) / 110 m
Effort = 250 J / m
Given that g = 10 m/s^2, we know that 1 N = 1 kg·m/s^2. Therefore, we can convert the units:
Effort = (250 J / m) / (1 kg·m/s^2 / 1 N)
Effort = 250 N
Therefore, the effort E required to lift the load is 250 N.

Rainbow formation is as a result of the combination of which of the following phenomena?
(i) Reflection
(ii) Dispersion
(iii) Total internal reflection
(iv) Refraction

Answer Details

As light ray enters a drop of water the light is refracted at the surface and at the end of the drop, it is totally internally reflected in which the reflected light returns to the front surface, where it again undergoes refraction as it moves from water to air. The result of this is a dispersed light of colours of different wavelengths.

A charge of 4.6×10−5 $4.6\times {10}^{-}5$C is placed in an electric field of intensity 3.2×104 $3.2\times {10}^4$ Vm−1
. What is the force acting on the electron?

Answer Details

To calculate the force acting on the charge in an electric field, we can use the formula: F = q * E Where: F is the force acting on the charge, q is the charge of the particle, and E is the electric field intensity. In this case, the charge is given as 4.6 × 10^(-5) C and the electric field intensity is given as 3.2 × 10^4 V/m. Substituting these values into the formula: F = (4.6 × 10^(-5) C) * (3.2 × 10^4 V/m) To multiply numbers in scientific notation, we multiply the coefficients and add the exponents: F = (4.6 * 3.2) * (10^(-5 + 4)) C * V/m F = 14.72 * 10^(-1) C * V/m To simplify, we can convert the result to standard form: F = 1.472 C * V/m Therefore, the force acting on the charge is **1.472 N**.

Light of wavelength 589 nm in vacuum passes through a piece of fused quartz of index of refraction n = 1.458. What is the frequency of the light in fused quartz?

[Speed of light c = 3 *10^8ms-1]

Answer Details

In an AC circuit, resonance occurs when the impedance of the circuit is:

Answer Details

In an AC circuit, resonance occurs when the impedance of the circuit is minimum.

Impedance is the total opposition to the flow of alternating current in a circuit, and it consists of two components: resistance (R) and reactance (X).

Reactance can be further divided into two types: inductive reactance (XL) and capacitive reactance (XC).

At resonance, the inductive reactance and the capacitive reactance are equal in magnitude and opposite in sign. This means that their effects cancel each other out, resulting in a minimum total reactance.

Since impedance is the combination of resistance and reactance, when the reactance is at its minimum, the impedance of the circuit is also at its minimum.

So, in summary, resonance occurs in an AC circuit when the impedance is minimum. At resonance, the inductive reactance and the capacitive reactance cancel each other out, resulting in a minimum total reactance and minimum impedance.

When light of a certain frequency is incident on a metal surface, no photoelectrons are emitted. If the frequency of the light is increased, what happens to the stopping potential?

Answer Details

When light of a certain frequency is incident on a metal surface, no photoelectrons are emitted. This is because the energy of the photons in the light is not enough to overcome the work function of the metal, which is the minimum amount of energy required to remove an electron from the metal surface.
If the frequency of the light is increased, it means that the energy of the photons increases. This increase in energy means that there is now enough energy to overcome the work function of the metal. As a result, photoelectrons are now emitted from the metal surface.
Now, let's consider the stopping potential. The stopping potential is the minimum potential difference that needs to be applied across a pair of electrodes in order to stop the flow of photoelectrons from reaching the other electrode.
When the frequency of the light is increased, the energy of the photons also increases. This means that the photoelectrons have more kinetic energy when they are emitted from the metal surface. As a result, a higher stopping potential is required to stop the more energetic photoelectrons from reaching the other electrode.
Therefore, the stopping potential increases when the frequency of the light is increased.

Which of the following is an example of a couple?

Answer Details

A couple is a pair of forces that are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction, and that are applied to a body at different points. The forces of a couple do not produce any translation, but they do produce a rotation.

The number of holes in an intrinsic semiconductor

Answer Details

The number of holes in an intrinsic semiconductor is equal to the number of free electrons.

In an intrinsic semiconductor, the valence band is completely filled with electrons. However, due to thermal energy, some of these electrons can gain enough energy to jump to the conduction band, leaving behind holes in the valence band.

For every electron that moves to the conduction band, a hole is created in the valence band. Since the number of electrons and holes is equal, the number of holes in an intrinsic semiconductor is equal to the number of free electrons.

Therefore, the correct option is: is equal to the number of free electrons.

Which of the following statements regarding the application of electrical conduction via gases is/are correct?
Electrical conduction in gas is applied in:
(i) The identification of gases
(ii) Lighting/fluorescent tubes
(iii) Photocells
(iv) Cathode ray oscilloscope/T.V. tubes

Answer Details

Electrical conduction of gas is applied in:
(i) The identification of gases
(ii) Lighting/fluorescent tubes
(iii) Advertising industry/Neon signs
(iv) Cathode ray oscilloscope/T.V. tubes

Three forces with magnitudes 16 N, 12 N and 21 N are shown in the diagram below. Determine the magnitude of their resultant force and angle with the x-axis

Answer Details

Find the tension in the two cords shown in the figure above. Neglect the mass of the cords, and assume that the angle is 38° and the mass m is 220 kg

[Take g = 9.8 ms-2]

Answer Details

W =  mg  = 220 x 9.8 = 2156 N

⇒Sin 38º = 2156T1 $\frac{\mathrm{<br>}}{}$

⇒ T1 ${\mathrm{<br>}}_{}$ =    2156Sin38

⇒ T1 ${\mathrm{<br>}}_{}$ =     3502 N

Cos 38º =  T2T1 $\frac{{\mathrm{<br>}}_{}}{}$

⇒ T2 ${\mathrm{<br>}}_{}$  =   3502 x Cos 38º

⇒ T2 ${\mathrm{<br>}}_{}$ =   2760 N

;    T1 ${\mathrm{<br>}}_{}$ =   3502 N,  T2
 = 2760 N.

Which of the following statements is correct about the angle of dip at various points on Earth?

Answer Details

The correct statement about the angle of dip at various points on Earth is: The angle of dip is zero at the equator and 90 degrees at the magnetic poles.
The angle of dip, also known as the inclination, refers to the angle between the Earth's magnetic field lines and the horizontal plane at a specific location. It tells us how much the magnetic field lines of the Earth are inclined or tilted at that point.
At the equator, the angle of dip is zero. This means that the magnetic field lines are parallel to the horizontal plane. As we move closer to the magnetic poles, the angle of dip increases. At the magnetic poles, the angle of dip is 90 degrees, indicating that the magnetic field lines are perpendicular to the horizontal plane.
The second statement that the angle of dip is greater at higher altitudes than at lower altitudes is incorrect. The angle of dip is primarily affected by the latitude or distance from the equator and the proximity to the magnetic poles, rather than the altitude. So, the angle of dip remains consistent at a specific latitude regardless of the altitude above sea level.
The third statement that the angle of dip is positive in the northern hemisphere and negative in the southern hemisphere is also incorrect. The angle of dip is positive in the northern hemisphere and negative in the southern hemisphere. This means that the magnetic field lines are inclined downwards in the northern hemisphere and upwards in the southern hemisphere.
The fourth statement that the angle of dip is constant at all points on Earth is incorrect as well. The angle of dip varies depending on the latitude and the proximity to the magnetic poles, as explained earlier. So, it is not constant across all points on Earth.
To summarize, the correct statement is that the angle of dip is zero at the equator and 90 degrees at the magnetic poles. It is important to note that the angle of dip is not affected by altitude but is primarily determined by latitude and proximity to the magnetic poles.

Which process is responsible for production of energy in stars?

Answer Details

The process responsible for the production of energy in stars is nuclear fusion.

Nuclear fusion is the process where two or more atomic nuclei come together to form a heavier nucleus. In stars, the fusion of hydrogen nuclei (protons) into helium nuclei is the main source of energy.

Here's how it works:

1. In the core of a star, high temperatures and pressures cause hydrogen nuclei to collide with enough force to overcome their electric repulsion and merge together.
2. This fusion of hydrogen nuclei results in the formation of helium nuclei.
3. During this fusion process, a very tiny amount of mass is converted into a large amount of energy according to Einstein's famous equation, E=mc². The mass difference is released as energy.
4. This released energy is what provides the heat and light that we observe from the stars.

This ongoing fusion process in stars is called stellar nucleosynthesis. It occurs throughout the star's lifetime until the available hydrogen in the core is depleted. At this point, depending on the star's mass, different fusion reactions may take place, leading to the production of heavier elements.

In summary, nuclear fusion, the fusion of hydrogen nuclei into helium nuclei, is the process responsible for the production of energy in stars.

On a particular hot day, the temperature is 40°C and the partial pressure of water vapor in the air is 38.8 mmHg. What is the relative humidity?

Answer Details

To calculate the relative humidity, we need to understand the concept of saturation and how much water vapor the air can hold at a given temperature.
Saturation is the point at which the air is holding the maximum amount of water vapor it can hold at a particular temperature. Once the air reaches saturation, any additional moisture will start to condense into liquid water.
The amount of water vapor that the air can hold increases with temperature. Warmer air can hold more water vapor, while cooler air can hold less.
Now, let's calculate the relative humidity using the given information:
1. Find the saturation vapor pressure at 40°C: - The saturation vapor pressure is the maximum amount of water vapor the air can hold at a specific temperature. - At 40°C, the saturation vapor pressure is approximately 55.3 mmHg.
2. Calculate the relative humidity: - Relative humidity is the ratio of the current partial pressure of water vapor to the saturation vapor pressure, expressed as a percentage. - Relative Humidity = (Partial pressure of water vapor / Saturation vapor pressure) * 100 - In this case, the partial pressure of water vapor is 38.8 mmHg and the saturation vapor pressure at 40°C is 55.3 mmHg. - Plugging in these values into the formula, we get: Relative Humidity = (38.8 mmHg / 55.3 mmHg) * 100 = 70.2%
Therefore, the relative humidity on this particular hot day is approximately 70%.
Answer: The correct option is 70.

A missile is launched with a speed of 75 ms-1 at an angle of 22° above the surface of a warship. Find the horizontal range achieved by the missile. Ignore the effects of air resistance.

[Take g = 10 ms-1]

Answer Details

Which of the following thermometers measures temperature from the thermal radiation emitted by objects?

Answer Details

A pyrometer thermometer measures temperature from the thermal radiation emitted by objects.

When objects are heated, they emit thermal radiation, which is a form of electromagnetic radiation. This radiation is primarily in the infrared wavelength range. A pyrometer thermometer is specifically designed to measure the intensity of this thermal radiation and convert it into a temperature reading.

The pyrometer thermometer works based on the principle of measuring the amount of thermal radiation reaching the sensor. This is done using a detector that is sensitive to the infrared wavelength range. The detector absorbs the thermal radiation emitted by the object and generates an electrical signal proportional to the intensity of the radiation.

The electrical signal from the detector is then processed by the thermometer's electronics to calculate and display the corresponding temperature. The calibration of the thermometer ensures accurate temperature readings based on the known relationship between the intensity of thermal radiation and temperature.

Pyrometer thermometers are commonly used in industrial applications where contact-based temperature measurement methods are not feasible or accurate enough. They can measure temperatures of objects from a distance without physically touching them, which makes them suitable for measuring high temperatures, moving objects, or objects in hazardous or inaccessible environments.

Therefore, the pyrometer thermometer is the correct option for measuring temperature from thermal radiation emitted by objects.

An air bubble of radius 4.5 cm initially at a depth of 12 m below the water surface rises to the surface. If the atmospheric pressure is equal to 10.34 m of water, the radius of the bubble just before it reaches the water surface is

Answer Details

A parallel plate capacitor separated by an air gap is made of 0.8m2 tin plates and 20 mm apart. It is connected to 120 V battery. What is the charge on each plate?

Take εo = 8.85 * 10-12 Fm−1

Answer Details

To calculate the charge on each plate of a parallel plate capacitor, we can use the formula Q = CV, where Q is the charge, C is the capacitance, and V is the voltage applied. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor can be calculated using the formula C = εA/d, where C is the capacitance, ε is the permittivity of the medium (in this case, air), A is the area of each plate, and d is the distance between the plates. Given: Area of each plate (A) = 0.8 m^2 Distance between the plates (d) = 20 mm = 0.02 m Permittivity of air (ε) = 8.85 x 10^-12 F/m Using the formula for capacitance, we can calculate C: C = εA/d = (8.85 x 10^-12 F/m)(0.8 m^2)/(0.02 m) = 8.85 x 10^-12 F/m * 40 F = 3.54 x 10^-10 F Now, we can use the formula Q = CV to calculate the charge on each plate: Q = (3.54 x 10^-10 F)(120 V) = 4.25 x 10^-8 C = 42.5 x 10^-9 C = 42.5 nC Therefore, the charge on each plate of the parallel plate capacitor is **42.5 nC**.

A step-down transformer is used on a 2.2 kV line to deliver 110 V. How many turns are on the primary windings if the secondary has 25 turns?

Answer Details

To determine the number of turns on the primary winding of a step-down transformer, we need to understand how a transformer works and how the voltage is transformed from the primary to the secondary winding.

A transformer operates on the principle of electromagnetic induction. When an alternating current flows through the primary winding, it creates a changing magnetic field that induces a voltage in the secondary winding.

The voltage ratio between the primary and secondary windings is determined by the ratio of the number of turns in each winding. This means that if we decrease the number of turns in the secondary winding compared to the primary winding, we can reduce the voltage output.

In this case, we are given that the secondary winding has 25 turns and we want to deliver 110 V. The primary winding has a higher voltage, which is 2.2 kV (kilovolts) or 2200 V.

To determine the number of turns on the primary winding, we can set up a simple equation using the voltage ratios:

Primary voltage / Secondary voltage = Primary winding turns / Secondary winding turns

Plugging in the values we have:

2200 V / 110 V = Primary winding turns / 25 turns

Simplifying the equation:

20 = Primary winding turns / 25

To solve for the number of turns on the primary winding, we can cross multiply:

20 x 25 = Primary winding turns

Therefore, the number of turns on the primary winding is 500.

So, the correct answer is 500.

Which of the following is a type of incandescent light source?

Answer Details

The Tungsten filament lamp is a type of incandescent light source.

An incandescent light source works by using electricity to heat a filament inside the bulb until it becomes so hot that it emits light. In a tungsten filament lamp, the filament is made of tungsten, which is a metal that has a very high melting point. This allows the filament to get extremely hot without melting.

When an electric current passes through the filament, it heats up and starts to glow, producing visible light. The light emitted by a tungsten filament lamp is actually a result of the high temperature, which causes the atoms in the filament to vibrate and release energy in the form of light.

Incandescent light sources like tungsten filament lamps have been widely used for many years because they produce a warm, yellowish light that is similar to natural sunlight. However, they are not very energy-efficient, as a significant amount of the electrical energy is converted into heat rather than light.

In recent years, there has been a shift towards more energy-efficient alternatives like LED lamps and fluorescent lamps. LED lamps use a different mechanism to produce light, using a semiconductor that emits light when electric current passes through it. Fluorescent lamps use a gas-filled tube that emits ultraviolet light when electric current flows through it, and this ultraviolet light is then converted into visible light by a phosphor coating inside the tube.

So, in summary, the tungsten filament lamp is the type of incandescent light source among the options given. It works by heating a tungsten filament to a very high temperature, causing it to emit light. However, it is less energy-efficient compared to LED and fluorescent lamps.

When a water droplet is placed on a freshly cut piece of wood, it spreads out to form a thin layer because the wood is

Answer Details

When a water droplet is placed on a freshly cut piece of wood, it spreads out to form a thin layer because the wood is adhesive to water.

Adhesion is the attraction between different substances, in this case, water and wood. Wood is a porous material, meaning it has tiny holes or gaps in its surface. These tiny holes create a large surface area for the water droplet to interact with.

When the water droplet comes into contact with the wood, the adhesive forces between the water molecules and the wood molecules are stronger than the cohesive forces between the water molecules. This causes the water droplet to spread out, trying to maximize its contact with the wood surface.

The spreading out of the water droplet forms a thin layer because the wood surface is not completely smooth. Instead, it has irregularities and imperfections, which allow the water to seep into those gaps and spread out further.

Therefore, when a water droplet is placed on a freshly cut piece of wood, it spreads out to form a thin layer due to the adhesive forces between the water and the wood surface.

A 400 N box is being pushed across a level floor at a constant speed by a force P of 100 N at an angle of 30.0° to the horizontal, as shown in the the diagram below. What is the coefficient of kinetic friction between the box and the floor?

Answer Details

W = 400 N; P = 100 N; θ = 30o; μ = ?

Frictional force (Fr) = μR (where R is the normal reaction)

The forces acting along the horizontal direction are Fr and Px

∴ Pcos 30° - Fr = ma (Pcos 30° is acting in the +ve x-axis while Fr in the -ve x-axis)

⇒ 100cos 30° - μR = ma

Since the box is moving at constant speed, its acceleration is zero

⇒ 100cos 30° - μR = 0

⇒ 100cos 30o = μR ----- (i)

The forces acting in the vertical direction are W, Py and R

∴ R - Psin 30° - W = 0 (R is acting upward (+ve) while Py and W are acting downward (-ve) and they are at equilibrium)

⇒ R - 100sin 30° - 400 = 0

⇒ R = 100sin 30° + 400

⇒ R = 50 + 400 = 450 N

From equation (i)

⇒ 100cos 30° = 450μ

⇒μ=100cos30°

  N = 100cos30°450 $\frac{\mathrm{<br>}}{}$

        = μ = 0.19

Answer Details

The terminals of a battery of emf 24.0 V and internal resistance of 1.0 Ω is connected to an external resistor 5.0 Ω. Find the terminal p.d.

Answer Details

To find the terminal p.d. (potential difference), we need to consider the concept of voltage in a circuit. Voltage is the amount of electrical energy per unit charge provided by a power source, in this case, the battery.

In this problem, we are given:

EMF (electromotive force) of the battery = 24.0 V

Internal resistance of the battery = 1.0 Ω

External resistor = 5.0 Ω

When the battery is connected to the external resistor, a current will flow in the circuit. This current is determined by Ohm's law, which states that the current flowing in a circuit is directly proportional to the voltage applied and inversely proportional to the resistance:

I = V / R

where:

I is the current flowing in the circuit

V is the voltage applied

R is the resistance of the circuit

In this case, the voltage applied is the emf of the battery, and the resistance is the sum of the internal resistance and the external resistor.

We can calculate the current flowing in the circuit:

I = 24.0V / (1.0Ω + 5.0Ω) = 24.0V / 6.0Ω = 4.0A

Now, the terminal p.d. is the voltage drop across the external resistor. We can calculate it using Ohm's law:

V = I * R

Substituting the values:

V = 4.0A * 5.0Ω = 20.0V

Therefore, the terminal p.d. is 20.0V.

The electrolyte used in the Nickel-Iron (NiFe) accumulator is

Answer Details

The electrolyte used in the Nickel-Iron (NiFe) accumulator is **potassium hydroxide solution**.

In a Nickel-Iron accumulator, the electrolyte is the substance that allows the flow of electric current between the electrodes. It is essential for the proper functioning of the accumulator.

Potassium hydroxide solution is the ideal electrolyte for the NiFe accumulator due to its properties. It has good electrical conductivity, which means it allows the movement of ions between the positive and negative electrodes, enabling the flow of electrons and facilitating the charging and discharging process.

In addition to good conductivity, potassium hydroxide solution also has other beneficial properties for the NiFe accumulator. It is stable, ensuring a longer lifespan for the accumulator. It is also less prone to self-discharge, meaning the accumulator can retain its charge for a longer period without significant loss.

Therefore, the electrolyte used in the Nickel-Iron (NiFe) accumulator is potassium hydroxide solution.

Which of the following types of electromagnetic waves is used in night vision goggles?

Answer Details

Night vision goggles use infrared waves to enable the user to see in the dark.

Infrared waves are a type of electromagnetic radiation that have longer wavelengths than visible light. They fall between the visible and microwave regions on the electromagnetic spectrum. Unlike visible light, which is visible to the human eye, infrared waves cannot be seen without the use of specialized devices such as night vision goggles.

When it is dark, objects do not emit visible light that can be detected by the human eye. However, they do emit heat in the form of infrared radiation. Night vision goggles work by detecting and amplifying this infrared radiation, which is then converted into visible light that can be seen by the user.

The goggles contain an image intensifier tube that is sensitive to infrared radiation. This tube amplifies the incoming infrared light and converts it into an image that can be seen through the goggles. The resulting image appears green because the human eye is more sensitive to green light.

Therefore, to see in the dark, night vision goggles use infrared waves to detect and amplify the infrared radiation emitted by objects. This enables the user to have enhanced vision in low-light conditions or complete darkness.

Which of the following materials is a good insulator?

Answer Details

A good insulator is a material that does not easily allow heat or electricity to pass through it. It acts as a barrier, preventing the flow of heat or electricity. Out of the given options, rubber is a good insulator.

Rubber is made up of long chains of molecules that are closely packed together. These chains do not allow the easy movement of heat or electricity. This means that when heat or electricity tries to pass through rubber, it encounters resistance, making it difficult for it to flow.

In contrast, materials like silver, water, and copper are good conductors rather than insulators.

Silver is an excellent conductor of electricity and heat because its atoms have loosely bound electrons that are free to move. This allows for the easy transfer of heat or electricity throughout the material.

Water is also a good conductor of both heat and electricity. It contains charged particles called ions that can carry electric current. Additionally, water molecules are able to transfer heat through convection.

Copper is widely used in electrical wiring because it is an excellent conductor of electricity. Like silver, its atoms have free electrons that can move easily and transfer electrical energy.

Therefore, rubber is the material that serves as a good insulator, while silver, water, and copper are good conductors of heat and electricity.

The branch of physics that deals with the motion of objects and the forces acting on them is called:

Answer Details

The branch of physics that deals with the motion of objects and the forces acting on them is called mechanics.

Mechanics is the foundation of physics that studies how objects move and interact under the influence of forces. It encompasses both the study of the motion of macroscopic objects, such as cars and planets, and the behavior of microscopic particles, such as atoms and molecules.

Mechanics is divided into two main branches:

• Classical mechanics: This branch deals with the motion of objects that are larger than atoms and are not moving near the speed of light. It includes the well-known laws of motion formulated by Sir Isaac Newton, such as Newton's laws of motion, which describe how the velocity and acceleration of an object are related to the forces acting upon it.
• Quantum mechanics: This branch deals with the behavior of particles at the atomic and subatomic levels. It is based on probabilities and wave-particle duality, rather than classical concepts of motion and force. Quantum mechanics is essential for our understanding of the behavior of electrons, photons, and other quantum particles.

Therefore, when referring to the branch of physics that specifically focuses on the motion of objects and the forces acting on them, the correct answer is mechanics.

A positively charged particle is placed near a negatively charged particle. What is the direction of the electric force between the two particles?

Answer Details

The correct answer is The electric force is directed from the positive particle to the negative particle.

When a positively charged particle is placed near a negatively charged particle, they exert an attractive force on each other. This force is called the electric force.

According to Coulomb's Law, the electric force between two charged particles is directly proportional to the product of their charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.

In this case, the positively charged particle has a positive charge and the negatively charged particle has a negative charge. Since opposite charges attract each other, the electric force between them is attractive.

Therefore, the electric force is directed from the positive particle to the negative particle.

A metal sphere is placed on an insulating stand. A negatively charged rod is brought close to it. If the sphere is earthed and the rod is taken away, what will be the charge on the sphere?

Answer Details

When a negatively charged rod is brought close to a metal sphere, the free electrons in the sphere are repelled from the rod and move to the other end of the sphere. This creates a region of positive charge on the side of the sphere closest to the rod, and a region of negative charge on the opposite side. The process of charge distribution stops when the net force on the free electrons inside the metal is equal to zero.

If the sphere is then earthed, the free electrons will flow from the sphere to the ground, leaving the sphere with a net positive charge.

In the diagram above, if the south poles of two magnets stroke a steel bar, the polarities at X and Y will respectively be

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The polarities at X and Y would be north and north.

The pitch of a musical note is determined by the frequency of the sound wave that it produces. If two instruments have the same frequency, which of the following factors will most affect the difference in their pitches?

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The frequency of a sound wave is proportional to the tension of the string. If two instruments have the same frequency, but one has a tighter string, then the instrument with the tighter string will have a higher pitch.

The other factors listed, such as the size of the instrument, the material of the instrument, and the shape of the instrument, will also affect the pitch of the instrument, but they will have a smaller effect than the tension of the string.

An open-tube mercury manometer is used to measure the pressure in a gas tank. When the atmospheric pressure is 101,325 Pa
, what is the absolute pressure in Pa
 in the tank if the height of the mercury in the open tube is 25 cm higher

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What is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a 0.02 kg of ice cube from −10oC to 10oC ?

[specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.34 x 105  Jkg−1, Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 Jkg−1 k−1

Specific heat capacity of ice = 2100 Jkg−1k−1

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Name the type of equilibrium for each position of the ball

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To determine the type of equilibrium for each position of the ball, we need to understand what each type of equilibrium means. 1. **Unstable equilibrium**: This occurs when a small disturbance or change in the system causes the object to move away from its equilibrium position. In other words, the system is "unstable" and will not return to its original position on its own. 2. **Neutral equilibrium**: This occurs when a small disturbance or change in the system does not cause the object to move away from its equilibrium position. The system remains in its new position without any tendency to return to its original position. 3. **Stable equilibrium**: This occurs when a small disturbance or change in the system causes the object to move away from its equilibrium position, but the system has a tendency to return to its original position on its own. Now, let's analyze each position of the ball: A - **Unstable equilibrium**: Suppose the ball is placed at position A. If the ball is slightly disturbed or moved from this position, it will roll away further from its original position and won't come back on its own. Hence, position A is an unstable equilibrium. B - **Stable equilibrium**: Suppose the ball is placed at position B. If the ball is slightly disturbed or moved from this position, it will oscillate back and forth but eventually come back to its original position. This indicates that position B is a stable equilibrium. C - **Neutral equilibrium**: Suppose the ball is placed at position C. If the ball is slightly disturbed or moved from this position, it will stay at the new position without any tendency to return to its original position. This identifies position C as a neutral equilibrium. Based on the explanations above, the correct answer is: A - unstable, B - stable, C - neutral.

An object is placed 35 cm away from a convex mirror with a focal length of magnitude 15 cm. What is the location of the image?

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Let's understand how a convex mirror forms images. In a convex mirror, the center of curvature and the focal point lie behind the mirror. Convex mirrors always produce virtual, upright, and diminished images.
Here, we are given that the object is placed 35 cm away from the convex mirror and the mirror has a focal length of 15 cm.
To find the location of the image, we can use the mirror formula, which states:
1/f = 1/v - 1/u
Where: - f is the focal length of the mirror, - v is the distance of the image from the mirror (negative for virtual image), - u is the distance of the object from the mirror (negative for real object in front of the mirror).
In this case, f = 15 cm and u = -35 cm (negative because the object is in front of the mirror).
Substituting these values into the formula, we get:
1/15 = 1/v - 1/-35
Simplifying the equation, we get:
1/v = 1/15 + 1/35
To add the fractions, we find the common denominator, which is 105. Then, we have:
1/v = (7 + 3)/105
1/v = 10/105
Simplifying further, we get:
1/v = 2/21
To solve for v, we take the reciprocal on both sides of the equation:
v = 21/2
Therefore, the location of the image is 10.5 cm behind the mirror.

Calculate the absolute pressure at the bottom of a lake at a depth of 32.8 m. Assume the density of the water is 1 x 10-3 kgm-3 and the air above is at a pressure of 101.3 kPa.

[Take g = 9.8 ms-2]

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