JAMB UTME - Physics - 2023

Which of the following is/are not true about the heat capacity of a substance?
(i) It is an intensive property
(ii) Its S.I unit is jK−1
(iii) It is an extensive property
(iv) Its S.I unit is jkg−1

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The correct answer is (ii) and (iii) only. The heat capacity of a substance is a measure of how much heat energy is required to raise the temperature of the substance by a certain amount. It is an important property in thermodynamics. (i) It is not true that heat capacity is an intensive property. Intensive properties do not depend on the size or amount of the substance. For example, density and temperature are intensive properties. However, heat capacity does depend on the size or amount of the substance. The heat capacity of a substance increases with its mass or amount. Therefore, statement (i) is false. (ii) It is true that the SI unit of heat capacity is joules per kelvin (J/K). Heat capacity is defined as the amount of heat energy (in joules) required to raise the temperature of a substance by 1 degree kelvin. Therefore, statement (ii) is true. (iii) It is not true that heat capacity is an extensive property. Extensive properties depend on the size or amount of the substance. Examples of extensive properties include mass and volume. However, heat capacity is an intensive property as explained earlier. Therefore, statement (iii) is false. (iv) It is true that the SI unit of heat capacity is joules per kilogram per kelvin (J/(kg·K)). This unit is commonly used for specific heat capacity, which is the heat capacity per unit mass. Therefore, statement (iv) is true. In summary, the correct statement is that (ii) and (iii) are not true about the heat capacity of a substance.

A wire of radius 0.2 mm is extended by 0.5% of its length when supported by a load of 1.5 kg. Determine the Young's modulus for the material of the wire.

[Take g = 10 ms-2]

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The number of holes in an intrinsic semiconductor

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The number of holes in an intrinsic semiconductor is equal to the number of free electrons.

In an intrinsic semiconductor, the valence band is completely filled with electrons. However, due to thermal energy, some of these electrons can gain enough energy to jump to the conduction band, leaving behind holes in the valence band.

For every electron that moves to the conduction band, a hole is created in the valence band. Since the number of electrons and holes is equal, the number of holes in an intrinsic semiconductor is equal to the number of free electrons.

Therefore, the correct option is: is equal to the number of free electrons.

The near point of a patient's eye is 50.0 cm. What power (in diopters) must a corrective lens have to enable the eye to see clearly an object 25.0 cm away?

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A lorry accelerates uniformly in a straight line with acceleration of 4ms-1 and covers a distance of 250 m in a time interval of 10 s. How far will it travel in the next 10 s?

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In an AC circuit, resonance occurs when the impedance of the circuit is:

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In an AC circuit, resonance occurs when the impedance of the circuit is minimum.

Impedance is the total opposition to the flow of alternating current in a circuit, and it consists of two components: resistance (R) and reactance (X).

Reactance can be further divided into two types: inductive reactance (XL) and capacitive reactance (XC).

At resonance, the inductive reactance and the capacitive reactance are equal in magnitude and opposite in sign. This means that their effects cancel each other out, resulting in a minimum total reactance.

Since impedance is the combination of resistance and reactance, when the reactance is at its minimum, the impedance of the circuit is also at its minimum.

So, in summary, resonance occurs in an AC circuit when the impedance is minimum. At resonance, the inductive reactance and the capacitive reactance cancel each other out, resulting in a minimum total reactance and minimum impedance.

When light of a certain frequency is incident on a metal surface, no photoelectrons are emitted. If the frequency of the light is increased, what happens to the stopping potential?

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When light of a certain frequency is incident on a metal surface, no photoelectrons are emitted. This is because the energy of the photons in the light is not enough to overcome the work function of the metal, which is the minimum amount of energy required to remove an electron from the metal surface.
If the frequency of the light is increased, it means that the energy of the photons increases. This increase in energy means that there is now enough energy to overcome the work function of the metal. As a result, photoelectrons are now emitted from the metal surface.
Now, let's consider the stopping potential. The stopping potential is the minimum potential difference that needs to be applied across a pair of electrodes in order to stop the flow of photoelectrons from reaching the other electrode.
When the frequency of the light is increased, the energy of the photons also increases. This means that the photoelectrons have more kinetic energy when they are emitted from the metal surface. As a result, a higher stopping potential is required to stop the more energetic photoelectrons from reaching the other electrode.
Therefore, the stopping potential increases when the frequency of the light is increased.

Which of the following liquids has the highest surface tension?

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Surface tension is a property of liquids that arises due to the cohesive forces between the molecules at the surface. It can be thought of as the "skin" or "film" that forms on the surface of a liquid.

Considering the options given:

- Water: Water molecules have strong cohesive forces, allowing them to form hydrogen bonds with each other. As a result, water has relatively high surface tension.

- Mercury: Mercury is a metal with metallic bonding, which is much stronger than the cohesive forces in liquids. As a result, mercury has very high surface tension.

- Oil: Oils typically consist of nonpolar molecules, which have weaker cohesive forces compared to polar molecules like water. Therefore, oil generally has lower surface tension than water.

Based on this information, we can conclude that mercury has the highest surface tension among these liquids.

Light of wavelength 589 nm in vacuum passes through a piece of fused quartz of index of refraction n = 1.458. What is the frequency of the light in fused quartz?

[Speed of light c = 3 *10^8ms-1]

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Which of the following is a type of incandescent light source?

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The Tungsten filament lamp is a type of incandescent light source.

An incandescent light source works by using electricity to heat a filament inside the bulb until it becomes so hot that it emits light. In a tungsten filament lamp, the filament is made of tungsten, which is a metal that has a very high melting point. This allows the filament to get extremely hot without melting.

When an electric current passes through the filament, it heats up and starts to glow, producing visible light. The light emitted by a tungsten filament lamp is actually a result of the high temperature, which causes the atoms in the filament to vibrate and release energy in the form of light.

Incandescent light sources like tungsten filament lamps have been widely used for many years because they produce a warm, yellowish light that is similar to natural sunlight. However, they are not very energy-efficient, as a significant amount of the electrical energy is converted into heat rather than light.

In recent years, there has been a shift towards more energy-efficient alternatives like LED lamps and fluorescent lamps. LED lamps use a different mechanism to produce light, using a semiconductor that emits light when electric current passes through it. Fluorescent lamps use a gas-filled tube that emits ultraviolet light when electric current flows through it, and this ultraviolet light is then converted into visible light by a phosphor coating inside the tube.

So, in summary, the tungsten filament lamp is the type of incandescent light source among the options given. It works by heating a tungsten filament to a very high temperature, causing it to emit light. However, it is less energy-efficient compared to LED and fluorescent lamps.

When a water droplet is placed on a freshly cut piece of wood, it spreads out to form a thin layer because the wood is

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When a water droplet is placed on a freshly cut piece of wood, it spreads out to form a thin layer because the wood is adhesive to water.

Adhesion is the attraction between different substances, in this case, water and wood. Wood is a porous material, meaning it has tiny holes or gaps in its surface. These tiny holes create a large surface area for the water droplet to interact with.

When the water droplet comes into contact with the wood, the adhesive forces between the water molecules and the wood molecules are stronger than the cohesive forces between the water molecules. This causes the water droplet to spread out, trying to maximize its contact with the wood surface.

The spreading out of the water droplet forms a thin layer because the wood surface is not completely smooth. Instead, it has irregularities and imperfections, which allow the water to seep into those gaps and spread out further.

Therefore, when a water droplet is placed on a freshly cut piece of wood, it spreads out to form a thin layer due to the adhesive forces between the water and the wood surface.

Calculate the absolute pressure at the bottom of a lake at a depth of 32.8 m. Assume the density of the water is 1 x 10-3 kgm-3 and the air above is at a pressure of 101.3 kPa.

[Take g = 9.8 ms-2]

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An explosion occurs at an altitude of 312 m above the ground. If the air temperature is -10.00°C, how long does it take the sound to reach the ground?

[velocity of sound at 0 deg = 331 ms-1]

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A piano wire 50 cm long has a total mass of 10 g and its stretched with a tension of 800 N. Find the frequency of the wire when it sounds its third overtone note.

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T=800N; I=50cm=0.5m,

m=10g=0.01kg

fundamental freq: fo ${\mathrm{<br>}}_{}$ =?

fo ${\mathrm{<br>}}_{}$ = 121√Tμ $\frac{1}{21}<br>$

μ =m1 $\frac{\mathrm{<br>}}{}$=0.010.5 $\frac{0.01}{0.5}$

⇒ fo ${\mathrm{<br>}}_{}$ =12×0.5 $\frac{1}{2\times 0.5}$√8000.02 $\frac{800}{0.02}$

                  fo ${\mathrm{<br>}}_{}$  ⇒√ 40,000

⇒1st overtone = 2fo ${\mathrm{<br>}}_{}$ =2×200 = 400Hz

⇒2nd overtone =3fo ${\mathrm{<br>}}_{}$ =3×200=600Hz

∴3rd over tone= 4fo ${\mathrm{<br>}}_{}$  =4×200=800Hz

Which process is responsible for production of energy in stars?

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The process responsible for the production of energy in stars is nuclear fusion.

Nuclear fusion is the process where two or more atomic nuclei come together to form a heavier nucleus. In stars, the fusion of hydrogen nuclei (protons) into helium nuclei is the main source of energy.

Here's how it works:

1. In the core of a star, high temperatures and pressures cause hydrogen nuclei to collide with enough force to overcome their electric repulsion and merge together.
2. This fusion of hydrogen nuclei results in the formation of helium nuclei.
3. During this fusion process, a very tiny amount of mass is converted into a large amount of energy according to Einstein's famous equation, E=mc². The mass difference is released as energy.
4. This released energy is what provides the heat and light that we observe from the stars.

This ongoing fusion process in stars is called stellar nucleosynthesis. It occurs throughout the star's lifetime until the available hydrogen in the core is depleted. At this point, depending on the star's mass, different fusion reactions may take place, leading to the production of heavier elements.

In summary, nuclear fusion, the fusion of hydrogen nuclei into helium nuclei, is the process responsible for the production of energy in stars.

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The half life of a radioactive material is 12 days. Calculate the decay constant.

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The decay constant of a radioactive material represents the probability that an atom of the material will decay in a unit of time. In this case, we are given the half-life of the material which is the time it takes for half of the radioactive atoms to decay.
The relationship between the decay constant (λ) and the half-life (T½) is given by the formula:
λ = ln(2) / T½
where ln(2) is the natural logarithm of 2.
To find the decay constant, we can plug in the given half-life value into the formula. In this case, the half-life is 12 days.
λ = ln(2) / 12
Using a calculator, we can calculate the value of ln(2) ≈ 0.6931.
λ = 0.6931 / 12 ≈ 0.05775 day^(-1)
Therefore, the decay constant for this radioactive material is approximately 0.05775 day^(-1).
The correct answer is 0.05775 day^(-1).

The property of wave shown in the diagram above is?

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The property of the wave shown in the diagram is diffraction.
Diffraction is the bending or spreading out of waves as they encounter an obstacle or pass through an opening. It occurs when waves encounter an obstacle that is comparable in size to their wavelength.
In the diagram, you can see that the wave is encountering an opening or a slit, and as a result, it is spreading out or bending around the edges of the opening. This bending or spreading out is characteristic of diffraction.
Diffraction is an important phenomenon in wave behavior and is observed in various situations, such as when sound waves pass through a doorway or when light waves pass through a narrow slit. It helps us understand how waves interact with obstacles and openings in their path.
In summary, the property of the wave shown in the diagram is diffraction, which is the bending or spreading out of waves as they encounter an obstacle or pass through an opening.

The pinhole camera works on

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The pinhole camera works on the principle of the rectilinear propagation of light. This principle states that light travels in straight lines. When light passes through the tiny hole in a pinhole camera, it forms an inverted image on the opposite side of the camera. The size of the image depends on the distance between the object and the pinhole.

A positively charged particle is placed near a negatively charged particle. What is the direction of the electric force between the two particles?

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The correct answer is The electric force is directed from the positive particle to the negative particle.

When a positively charged particle is placed near a negatively charged particle, they exert an attractive force on each other. This force is called the electric force.

According to Coulomb's Law, the electric force between two charged particles is directly proportional to the product of their charges and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them.

In this case, the positively charged particle has a positive charge and the negatively charged particle has a negative charge. Since opposite charges attract each other, the electric force between them is attractive.

Therefore, the electric force is directed from the positive particle to the negative particle.

Which of the following is an example of a couple?

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A couple is a pair of forces that are equal in magnitude but opposite in direction, and that are applied to a body at different points. The forces of a couple do not produce any translation, but they do produce a rotation.

Which of the following is a type of wave that is both mechanical and longitudinal?

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A wave that is both mechanical and longitudinal is sound waves.

Sound waves are created by the vibration of an object, such as a speaker, which causes the air particles around it to vibrate. These vibrations then travel through the air in the form of a wave.

Sound waves are classified as mechanical waves because they require a medium, such as air, water, or solid objects, to travel through. Without a medium, sound waves cannot propagate.

Furthermore, sound waves are classified as longitudinal waves because the particles in the medium vibrate parallel to the direction of the wave. This means that as the sound wave travels, the particles in the medium move back and forth in the same direction as the wave itself.

In contrast, water waves and seismic waves are mechanical waves, but they are not longitudinal. Water waves are categorized as transverse waves because the particles in the water move up and down at right angles to the direction of the wave. Seismic waves, which include earthquake waves, can be both transverse and longitudinal, but typically the primary seismic waves are classified as transverse waves.

Lastly, light waves are not mechanical waves but rather electromagnetic waves. They do not require a medium to travel through and can propagate in a vacuum, unlike sound waves.

How much work is done against the gravitational force on a 3.0 kg object when it is carried from the ground floor to the roof of a building, a vertical climb of 240 m?

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To calculate the work done against gravitational force, we can use the formula:
Work = Force x Distance
In this case, the force we are working against is the gravitational force. The gravitational force is the force with which the Earth pulls objects towards its center. The formula for gravitational force is:
Force = Mass x Acceleration due to gravity
The mass of the object is given as 3.0 kg. The acceleration due to gravity on Earth is approximately 9.8 m/s^2.
Now, we need to find the distance the object is being carried, which is 240 m.
Plugging these values into the formulas, we have:
Force = 3.0 kg x 9.8 m/s^2 = 29.4 N
Work = 29.4 N x 240 m
Therefore, the work done against the gravitational force is equal to 29.4 N x 240 m = 7056 J = 7.1 kJ (rounded to one decimal place).
So, the correct answer is 7.2 kJ.

The branch of physics that deals with the motion of objects and the forces acting on them is called:

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The branch of physics that deals with the motion of objects and the forces acting on them is called mechanics.

Mechanics is the foundation of physics that studies how objects move and interact under the influence of forces. It encompasses both the study of the motion of macroscopic objects, such as cars and planets, and the behavior of microscopic particles, such as atoms and molecules.

Mechanics is divided into two main branches:

• Classical mechanics: This branch deals with the motion of objects that are larger than atoms and are not moving near the speed of light. It includes the well-known laws of motion formulated by Sir Isaac Newton, such as Newton's laws of motion, which describe how the velocity and acceleration of an object are related to the forces acting upon it.
• Quantum mechanics: This branch deals with the behavior of particles at the atomic and subatomic levels. It is based on probabilities and wave-particle duality, rather than classical concepts of motion and force. Quantum mechanics is essential for our understanding of the behavior of electrons, photons, and other quantum particles.

Therefore, when referring to the branch of physics that specifically focuses on the motion of objects and the forces acting on them, the correct answer is mechanics.

Which of the following thermometers measures temperature from the thermal radiation emitted by objects?

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A pyrometer thermometer measures temperature from the thermal radiation emitted by objects.

When objects are heated, they emit thermal radiation, which is a form of electromagnetic radiation. This radiation is primarily in the infrared wavelength range. A pyrometer thermometer is specifically designed to measure the intensity of this thermal radiation and convert it into a temperature reading.

The pyrometer thermometer works based on the principle of measuring the amount of thermal radiation reaching the sensor. This is done using a detector that is sensitive to the infrared wavelength range. The detector absorbs the thermal radiation emitted by the object and generates an electrical signal proportional to the intensity of the radiation.

The electrical signal from the detector is then processed by the thermometer's electronics to calculate and display the corresponding temperature. The calibration of the thermometer ensures accurate temperature readings based on the known relationship between the intensity of thermal radiation and temperature.

Pyrometer thermometers are commonly used in industrial applications where contact-based temperature measurement methods are not feasible or accurate enough. They can measure temperatures of objects from a distance without physically touching them, which makes them suitable for measuring high temperatures, moving objects, or objects in hazardous or inaccessible environments.

Therefore, the pyrometer thermometer is the correct option for measuring temperature from thermal radiation emitted by objects.

Three forces with magnitudes 16 N, 12 N and 21 N are shown in the diagram below. Determine the magnitude of their resultant force and angle with the x-axis

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What is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a 0.02 kg of ice cube from −10oC to 10oC ?

[specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.34 x 105  Jkg−1, Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 Jkg−1 k−1

Specific heat capacity of ice = 2100 Jkg−1k−1

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Which of the following statements is correct about the angle of dip at various points on Earth?

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The correct statement about the angle of dip at various points on Earth is: The angle of dip is zero at the equator and 90 degrees at the magnetic poles.
The angle of dip, also known as the inclination, refers to the angle between the Earth's magnetic field lines and the horizontal plane at a specific location. It tells us how much the magnetic field lines of the Earth are inclined or tilted at that point.
At the equator, the angle of dip is zero. This means that the magnetic field lines are parallel to the horizontal plane. As we move closer to the magnetic poles, the angle of dip increases. At the magnetic poles, the angle of dip is 90 degrees, indicating that the magnetic field lines are perpendicular to the horizontal plane.
The second statement that the angle of dip is greater at higher altitudes than at lower altitudes is incorrect. The angle of dip is primarily affected by the latitude or distance from the equator and the proximity to the magnetic poles, rather than the altitude. So, the angle of dip remains consistent at a specific latitude regardless of the altitude above sea level.
The third statement that the angle of dip is positive in the northern hemisphere and negative in the southern hemisphere is also incorrect. The angle of dip is positive in the northern hemisphere and negative in the southern hemisphere. This means that the magnetic field lines are inclined downwards in the northern hemisphere and upwards in the southern hemisphere.
The fourth statement that the angle of dip is constant at all points on Earth is incorrect as well. The angle of dip varies depending on the latitude and the proximity to the magnetic poles, as explained earlier. So, it is not constant across all points on Earth.
To summarize, the correct statement is that the angle of dip is zero at the equator and 90 degrees at the magnetic poles. It is important to note that the angle of dip is not affected by altitude but is primarily determined by latitude and proximity to the magnetic poles.

Which of the following is NOT a limitation of experimental measurements?

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Instrument resolution is not a limitation of experimental measurements. It is the smallest change in a measured quantity that can be detected by an instrument. While instrument resolution limits the accuracy of a measurement, it is not a limitation of experimental measurements itself.

An air bubble of radius 4.5 cm initially at a depth of 12 m below the water surface rises to the surface. If the atmospheric pressure is equal to 10.34 m of water, the radius of the bubble just before it reaches the water surface is

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From the diagram above, if the potential difference across the resistor, capacitor and inductor are 60V, 120V and 30V respectively, the effective potential difference is

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A relative density bottle has a mass of 19 g when empty. When it is completely filled with water, its mass is 66 g. What will be its mass if completely filled with alcohol of relative density 0.8?

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Let mb=mass of empty bottle,

mw ${𝑚}_{𝑤}$=mass of water only and

ma ${𝑚}_{𝑎}$= mass of alcohol only
 

given; mb ${𝑚}_{𝑏}$=19g



mb ${𝑚}_{𝑏}$ + mw ${𝑚}_{𝑤}$ = 66g

mb ${𝑚}_{𝑏}$ + ma ${𝑚}_{𝑎}$ = ?

R.d=0.8

R.d=mass of alcohol

massofalcoholmassofequalvolumeofwater $\frac{𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠𝑜𝑓𝑎𝑙𝑐𝑜ℎ𝑜𝑙}{𝑚𝑎𝑠𝑠𝑜𝑓𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑎𝑙𝑣𝑜𝑙𝑢𝑚𝑒𝑜𝑓𝑤𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑟}$

mass of equal volume of water = mw ${𝑚}_{𝑤}$=66-19=47g

0.8 = ma47 $\frac{{𝑚}_{𝑎}}{47}$


ma ${𝑚}_{𝑎}$=0.8×47 =37.6g

 mb ${𝑚}_{𝑏}$ + ma ${𝑚}_{𝑎}$ = 19+37.6=56.6g

A parallel plate capacitor separated by an air gap is made of 0.8m2 tin plates and 20 mm apart. It is connected to 120 V battery. What is the charge on each plate?

Take εo = 8.85 * 10-12 Fm−1

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To calculate the charge on each plate of a parallel plate capacitor, we can use the formula Q = CV, where Q is the charge, C is the capacitance, and V is the voltage applied. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor can be calculated using the formula C = εA/d, where C is the capacitance, ε is the permittivity of the medium (in this case, air), A is the area of each plate, and d is the distance between the plates. Given: Area of each plate (A) = 0.8 m^2 Distance between the plates (d) = 20 mm = 0.02 m Permittivity of air (ε) = 8.85 x 10^-12 F/m Using the formula for capacitance, we can calculate C: C = εA/d = (8.85 x 10^-12 F/m)(0.8 m^2)/(0.02 m) = 8.85 x 10^-12 F/m * 40 F = 3.54 x 10^-10 F Now, we can use the formula Q = CV to calculate the charge on each plate: Q = (3.54 x 10^-10 F)(120 V) = 4.25 x 10^-8 C = 42.5 x 10^-9 C = 42.5 nC Therefore, the charge on each plate of the parallel plate capacitor is **42.5 nC**.

A metal sphere is placed on an insulating stand. A negatively charged rod is brought close to it. If the sphere is earthed and the rod is taken away, what will be the charge on the sphere?

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When a negatively charged rod is brought close to a metal sphere, the free electrons in the sphere are repelled from the rod and move to the other end of the sphere. This creates a region of positive charge on the side of the sphere closest to the rod, and a region of negative charge on the opposite side. The process of charge distribution stops when the net force on the free electrons inside the metal is equal to zero.

If the sphere is then earthed, the free electrons will flow from the sphere to the ground, leaving the sphere with a net positive charge.

A 35 kΩ is connected in series with a resistance of 40 kΩ. What resistance R must be connected in parallel with the combination so that the equivalent resistance is equal to 25 kΩ?

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For the combination in series;

⇒R1 = 35kΩ + 40kΩ = 75kΩ

R is combined with 75kΩ in parallel to give 25kΩ

=  1Req $\frac{\mathrm{<br>}}{}$ = 1R $\frac{\mathrm{<br>}}{}$ + 1R $\frac{\mathrm{<br>}}{}$ 

=   125 $\frac{\mathrm{<br>}}{}$     = 1R $\frac{\mathrm{<br>}}{}$ + 175 $\frac{\mathrm{<br>}}{}$ 

=  125 $\frac{\mathrm{<br>}}{}$     - 175 $\frac{\mathrm{<br>}}{}$ + 1R $\frac{\mathrm{<br>}}{}$ 

=   3−175 $\frac{\mathrm{<br>}}{}$ = 1R $\frac{\mathrm{<br>}}{}$ 

=   275 $\frac{\mathrm{<br>}}{}$   = 1R $\frac{\mathrm{<br>}}{}$ 

=   752 $\frac{\mathrm{<br>}}{}$  = R

;      R = 37.5k Ω

The working of the beam balance is based on the principle of

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The working of the beam balance is based on the principle of moments.

Moments, also known as torques, are a measure of the turning effect of a force. In the case of the beam balance, it is the moments that help determine the equilibrium or balance of the system.

The beam balance consists of a beam or lever that is supported at a pivot point called the fulcrum. On either end of the beam, there are pans where the objects to be weighed are placed.

When objects of different weights are placed on the pans, the beam becomes unbalanced. This causes the beam to tilt towards the side with the heavier object. However, in order to achieve equilibrium or balance, the moments on both sides of the beam must be equal.

The moment of a force is calculated by multiplying the magnitude of the force by the perpendicular distance from the point of rotation (the fulcrum) to the line of action of the force.

By adjusting the position of the counterweights or by moving the objects on the pans, the moment on each side of the beam can be balanced, resulting in the beam becoming level or horizontal. This indicates that the weights on both sides are equal.

Therefore, the beam balance operates on the principle of moments, where the balance is achieved by equalizing the moments on both sides of the fulcrum.

Which of the following statements regarding the application of electrical conduction via gases is/are correct?
Electrical conduction in gas is applied in:
(i) The identification of gases
(ii) Lighting/fluorescent tubes
(iii) Photocells
(iv) Cathode ray oscilloscope/T.V. tubes

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Electrical conduction of gas is applied in:
(i) The identification of gases
(ii) Lighting/fluorescent tubes
(iii) Advertising industry/Neon signs
(iv) Cathode ray oscilloscope/T.V. tubes

The diagram above illustrates the penetrating power of some types of radiation. X, Y and Z are likely

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The penetrating power of alpha rays, beta rays, and gamma rays varies greatly. Alpha particles can be blocked by a few pieces of paper. Beta particles pass through paper but are stopped by aluminum foil. Gamma rays are the most difficult to stop and require concrete, lead, or other heavy shielding to block them.

Therefore, X = γ-ray; Y = α-particle; Z = β-particle

A man swung an object of mass 2 kg in a circular path with a rope 1.2 m long. If the object was swung at 120 rev/min, find the tension in the rope.

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To find the tension in the rope, we can first use the formula for centripetal force, which is given by:
F_centripetal = (m * v^2) / r
where: - F_centripetal is the centripetal force - m is the mass of the object - v is the velocity of the object - r is the radius of the circular path
In this case, the mass of the object (m) is given as 2 kg and the radius (r) is given as 1.2 m.
Now, to find the velocity (v), we need to convert the given value of 120 rev/min to m/s.
Here's how we can do that:
1. First, convert the revolutions per minute (rev/min) to revolutions per second (rev/s) by dividing by 60 (since there are 60 seconds in a minute):
120 rev/min = 120/60 rev/s = 2 rev/s
2. Next, we need to convert the revolutions per second to the linear velocity in meters per second (m/s). To do this, we need to find the circumference of the circular path.
The circumference of a circle is given by the formula:
C = 2πr where r is the radius of the circular path.
Substituting the value of the radius (r = 1.2 m) into the formula, we have:
C = 2π * 1.2 = 2.4π Now, to find the linear velocity (v), we can multiply the circumference (C) by the number of revolutions per second (2 rev/s):
v = C * rev/s = 2.4π * 2 = 4.8π m/s
Now that we have the values of m (2 kg) and v (4.8π m/s), we can substitute them into the centripetal force formula to find the tension in the rope:
F_centripetal = (m * v^2) / r = (2 * (4.8π)^2) / 1.2
Simplifying further:
F_centripetal = (2 * 23.04π^2) / 1.2
F_centripetal = 38.4π^2
Finally, to get a numerical value for the tension in the rope, we can approximate the value of π to 3.14 and calculate the centripetal force:
F_centripetal ≈ 38.4 * 3.14^2 ≈ 379 N
Therefore, the tension in the rope is approximately 379 N.
Therefore, the correct answer is 379.

A travelling wave of amplitude 0.80 m has a frequency of 16 Hz and a wave speed of 20 ms-1

Calculate the wave number of the wave.

Antwortdetails

The wave number of a wave is defined as the number of wavelengths per unit distance. It represents the spatial frequency of the wave.
In this case, the wave has a frequency of 16 Hz, which means it completes 16 cycles or oscillations per second. Each cycle corresponds to one wavelength.
The wave speed is given as 20 m/s, which is the speed at which the wave propagates through the medium.
To calculate the wave number, we can use the formula:
Wave number (k) = 2? / wavelength (?)
First, we need to find the wavelength of the wave. We can use the formula:
Wave speed (v) = frequency (f) x wavelength (?)
Rewriting the formula, we have:
Wavelength (?) = wave speed (v) / frequency (f)
Substituting the given values, we have:
Wavelength (?) = 20 m/s / 16 Hz
Simplifying the expression, we get:
Wavelength (?) = 1.25 m
Now, we can calculate the wave number using the formula:
Wave number (k) = 2? / wavelength (?)
Substituting the value of the wavelength, we get:
Wave number (k) = 2? / 1.25 m
Simplifying the expression, we get:
Wave number (k) ? 5.03
Therefore, the wave number of the wave is approximately 5.