JAMB UTME - Physics - 2023

A 35 kΩ is connected in series with a resistance of 40 kΩ. What resistance R must be connected in parallel with the combination so that the equivalent resistance is equal to 25 kΩ?

Answer Details

For the combination in series;

⇒R1 = 35kΩ + 40kΩ = 75kΩ

R is combined with 75kΩ in parallel to give 25kΩ

=  1Req $\frac{\mathrm{<br>}}{}$ = 1R $\frac{\mathrm{<br>}}{}$ + 1R $\frac{\mathrm{<br>}}{}$ 

=   125 $\frac{\mathrm{<br>}}{}$     = 1R $\frac{\mathrm{<br>}}{}$ + 175 $\frac{\mathrm{<br>}}{}$ 

=  125 $\frac{\mathrm{<br>}}{}$     - 175 $\frac{\mathrm{<br>}}{}$ + 1R $\frac{\mathrm{<br>}}{}$ 

=   3−175 $\frac{\mathrm{<br>}}{}$ = 1R $\frac{\mathrm{<br>}}{}$ 

=   275 $\frac{\mathrm{<br>}}{}$   = 1R $\frac{\mathrm{<br>}}{}$ 

=   752 $\frac{\mathrm{<br>}}{}$  = R

;      R = 37.5k Ω

Which of the following statements is correct about the angle of dip at various points on Earth?

Answer Details

The correct statement about the angle of dip at various points on Earth is: The angle of dip is zero at the equator and 90 degrees at the magnetic poles.
The angle of dip, also known as the inclination, refers to the angle between the Earth's magnetic field lines and the horizontal plane at a specific location. It tells us how much the magnetic field lines of the Earth are inclined or tilted at that point.
At the equator, the angle of dip is zero. This means that the magnetic field lines are parallel to the horizontal plane. As we move closer to the magnetic poles, the angle of dip increases. At the magnetic poles, the angle of dip is 90 degrees, indicating that the magnetic field lines are perpendicular to the horizontal plane.
The second statement that the angle of dip is greater at higher altitudes than at lower altitudes is incorrect. The angle of dip is primarily affected by the latitude or distance from the equator and the proximity to the magnetic poles, rather than the altitude. So, the angle of dip remains consistent at a specific latitude regardless of the altitude above sea level.
The third statement that the angle of dip is positive in the northern hemisphere and negative in the southern hemisphere is also incorrect. The angle of dip is positive in the northern hemisphere and negative in the southern hemisphere. This means that the magnetic field lines are inclined downwards in the northern hemisphere and upwards in the southern hemisphere.
The fourth statement that the angle of dip is constant at all points on Earth is incorrect as well. The angle of dip varies depending on the latitude and the proximity to the magnetic poles, as explained earlier. So, it is not constant across all points on Earth.
To summarize, the correct statement is that the angle of dip is zero at the equator and 90 degrees at the magnetic poles. It is important to note that the angle of dip is not affected by altitude but is primarily determined by latitude and proximity to the magnetic poles.

The property of wave shown in the diagram above is?

Answer Details

The property of the wave shown in the diagram is diffraction.
Diffraction is the bending or spreading out of waves as they encounter an obstacle or pass through an opening. It occurs when waves encounter an obstacle that is comparable in size to their wavelength.
In the diagram, you can see that the wave is encountering an opening or a slit, and as a result, it is spreading out or bending around the edges of the opening. This bending or spreading out is characteristic of diffraction.
Diffraction is an important phenomenon in wave behavior and is observed in various situations, such as when sound waves pass through a doorway or when light waves pass through a narrow slit. It helps us understand how waves interact with obstacles and openings in their path.
In summary, the property of the wave shown in the diagram is diffraction, which is the bending or spreading out of waves as they encounter an obstacle or pass through an opening.

When a water droplet is placed on a freshly cut piece of wood, it spreads out to form a thin layer because the wood is

Answer Details

When a water droplet is placed on a freshly cut piece of wood, it spreads out to form a thin layer because the wood is adhesive to water.

Adhesion is the attraction between different substances, in this case, water and wood. Wood is a porous material, meaning it has tiny holes or gaps in its surface. These tiny holes create a large surface area for the water droplet to interact with.

When the water droplet comes into contact with the wood, the adhesive forces between the water molecules and the wood molecules are stronger than the cohesive forces between the water molecules. This causes the water droplet to spread out, trying to maximize its contact with the wood surface.

The spreading out of the water droplet forms a thin layer because the wood surface is not completely smooth. Instead, it has irregularities and imperfections, which allow the water to seep into those gaps and spread out further.

Therefore, when a water droplet is placed on a freshly cut piece of wood, it spreads out to form a thin layer due to the adhesive forces between the water and the wood surface.

A charge of 4.6×10−5 $4.6\times {10}^{-}5$C is placed in an electric field of intensity 3.2×104 $3.2\times {10}^4$ Vm−1
. What is the force acting on the electron?

Answer Details

To calculate the force acting on the charge in an electric field, we can use the formula: F = q * E Where: F is the force acting on the charge, q is the charge of the particle, and E is the electric field intensity. In this case, the charge is given as 4.6 × 10^(-5) C and the electric field intensity is given as 3.2 × 10^4 V/m. Substituting these values into the formula: F = (4.6 × 10^(-5) C) * (3.2 × 10^4 V/m) To multiply numbers in scientific notation, we multiply the coefficients and add the exponents: F = (4.6 * 3.2) * (10^(-5 + 4)) C * V/m F = 14.72 * 10^(-1) C * V/m To simplify, we can convert the result to standard form: F = 1.472 C * V/m Therefore, the force acting on the charge is **1.472 N**.

On a particular hot day, the temperature is 40°C and the partial pressure of water vapor in the air is 38.8 mmHg. What is the relative humidity?

Answer Details

To calculate the relative humidity, we need to understand the concept of saturation and how much water vapor the air can hold at a given temperature.
Saturation is the point at which the air is holding the maximum amount of water vapor it can hold at a particular temperature. Once the air reaches saturation, any additional moisture will start to condense into liquid water.
The amount of water vapor that the air can hold increases with temperature. Warmer air can hold more water vapor, while cooler air can hold less.
Now, let's calculate the relative humidity using the given information:
1. Find the saturation vapor pressure at 40°C: - The saturation vapor pressure is the maximum amount of water vapor the air can hold at a specific temperature. - At 40°C, the saturation vapor pressure is approximately 55.3 mmHg.
2. Calculate the relative humidity: - Relative humidity is the ratio of the current partial pressure of water vapor to the saturation vapor pressure, expressed as a percentage. - Relative Humidity = (Partial pressure of water vapor / Saturation vapor pressure) * 100 - In this case, the partial pressure of water vapor is 38.8 mmHg and the saturation vapor pressure at 40°C is 55.3 mmHg. - Plugging in these values into the formula, we get: Relative Humidity = (38.8 mmHg / 55.3 mmHg) * 100 = 70.2%
Therefore, the relative humidity on this particular hot day is approximately 70%.
Answer: The correct option is 70.

When light of a certain frequency is incident on a metal surface, no photoelectrons are emitted. If the frequency of the light is increased, what happens to the stopping potential?

Answer Details

When light of a certain frequency is incident on a metal surface, no photoelectrons are emitted. This is because the energy of the photons in the light is not enough to overcome the work function of the metal, which is the minimum amount of energy required to remove an electron from the metal surface.
If the frequency of the light is increased, it means that the energy of the photons increases. This increase in energy means that there is now enough energy to overcome the work function of the metal. As a result, photoelectrons are now emitted from the metal surface.
Now, let's consider the stopping potential. The stopping potential is the minimum potential difference that needs to be applied across a pair of electrodes in order to stop the flow of photoelectrons from reaching the other electrode.
When the frequency of the light is increased, the energy of the photons also increases. This means that the photoelectrons have more kinetic energy when they are emitted from the metal surface. As a result, a higher stopping potential is required to stop the more energetic photoelectrons from reaching the other electrode.
Therefore, the stopping potential increases when the frequency of the light is increased.

Which of the following statements regarding the application of electrical conduction via gases is/are correct?
Electrical conduction in gas is applied in:
(i) The identification of gases
(ii) Lighting/fluorescent tubes
(iii) Photocells
(iv) Cathode ray oscilloscope/T.V. tubes

Answer Details

Electrical conduction of gas is applied in:
(i) The identification of gases
(ii) Lighting/fluorescent tubes
(iii) Advertising industry/Neon signs
(iv) Cathode ray oscilloscope/T.V. tubes

Rainbow formation is as a result of the combination of which of the following phenomena?
(i) Reflection
(ii) Dispersion
(iii) Total internal reflection
(iv) Refraction

Answer Details

As light ray enters a drop of water the light is refracted at the surface and at the end of the drop, it is totally internally reflected in which the reflected light returns to the front surface, where it again undergoes refraction as it moves from water to air. The result of this is a dispersed light of colours of different wavelengths.

The near point of a patient's eye is 50.0 cm. What power (in diopters) must a corrective lens have to enable the eye to see clearly an object 25.0 cm away?

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Which of the following is a type of wave that is both mechanical and longitudinal?

Answer Details

A wave that is both mechanical and longitudinal is sound waves.

Sound waves are created by the vibration of an object, such as a speaker, which causes the air particles around it to vibrate. These vibrations then travel through the air in the form of a wave.

Sound waves are classified as mechanical waves because they require a medium, such as air, water, or solid objects, to travel through. Without a medium, sound waves cannot propagate.

Furthermore, sound waves are classified as longitudinal waves because the particles in the medium vibrate parallel to the direction of the wave. This means that as the sound wave travels, the particles in the medium move back and forth in the same direction as the wave itself.

In contrast, water waves and seismic waves are mechanical waves, but they are not longitudinal. Water waves are categorized as transverse waves because the particles in the water move up and down at right angles to the direction of the wave. Seismic waves, which include earthquake waves, can be both transverse and longitudinal, but typically the primary seismic waves are classified as transverse waves.

Lastly, light waves are not mechanical waves but rather electromagnetic waves. They do not require a medium to travel through and can propagate in a vacuum, unlike sound waves.

Which process is responsible for production of energy in stars?

Answer Details

The process responsible for the production of energy in stars is nuclear fusion.

Nuclear fusion is the process where two or more atomic nuclei come together to form a heavier nucleus. In stars, the fusion of hydrogen nuclei (protons) into helium nuclei is the main source of energy.

Here's how it works:

1. In the core of a star, high temperatures and pressures cause hydrogen nuclei to collide with enough force to overcome their electric repulsion and merge together.
2. This fusion of hydrogen nuclei results in the formation of helium nuclei.
3. During this fusion process, a very tiny amount of mass is converted into a large amount of energy according to Einstein's famous equation, E=mc². The mass difference is released as energy.
4. This released energy is what provides the heat and light that we observe from the stars.

This ongoing fusion process in stars is called stellar nucleosynthesis. It occurs throughout the star's lifetime until the available hydrogen in the core is depleted. At this point, depending on the star's mass, different fusion reactions may take place, leading to the production of heavier elements.

In summary, nuclear fusion, the fusion of hydrogen nuclei into helium nuclei, is the process responsible for the production of energy in stars.

From the diagram above, if the potential difference across the resistor, capacitor and inductor are 60V, 120V and 30V respectively, the effective potential difference is

Answer Details

What is the amount of heat required to raise the temperature of a 0.02 kg of ice cube from −10oC to 10oC ?

[specific latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.34 x 105  Jkg−1, Specific heat capacity of water = 4200 Jkg−1 k−1

Specific heat capacity of ice = 2100 Jkg−1k−1

Answer Details

A 200 kg load is raised using a 110 m long lever as shown in the diagram above. The load is 10m from the pivot P. If the efficiency of the the lever is 80%, find the effort E required to lift the load.

[Take g = 10ms-2]

Answer Details

To find the effort E required to lift the load, we first need to understand the concept of mechanical efficiency in levers.
A lever is a simple machine that consists of a rigid beam (lever arm) that pivots around a fixed point called the fulcrum. In this case, the fulcrum is point P.
The mechanical efficiency of a lever is defined as the ratio of the output work done (load lifted) to the input work done (effort applied). Mathematically, it can be expressed as:
Efficiency = (Output Work / Input Work) * 100%
In this problem, the load is the output work and the effort is the input work.
Given: Load = 200 kg Length of lever (distance between fulcrum and load) = 10 m Efficiency = 80% Gravitational acceleration (g) = 10 m/s^2
To calculate the effort, let's first calculate the output work:
Output Work = Load * Distance lifted
The distance lifted is equal to the length of the lever arm, which is 10 m.
Output Work = 200 kg * 10 m = 2000 kg·m
Since 1 kg·m is equivalent to 10 J (1 Joule), we can convert the units:
Output Work = 2000 kg·m * 10 J/kg·m = 20000 J
Now, let's calculate the input work:
Input Work = Effort * Distance moved by the effort
The distance moved by the effort is the length of the lever arm, which is 110 m.
Input Work = Effort * 110 m
Using the formula for mechanical efficiency, we can rewrite it as:
Efficiency = (Output Work / Input Work) * 100%
Solving for the effort:
Effort = (Output Work / (Efficiency/100)) / Distance moved by the effort
Effort = (20000 J / (80/100)) / 110 m
Simplifying the equation:
Effort = (20000 J / 0.8) / 110 m
Effort = 250 J / m
Given that g = 10 m/s^2, we know that 1 N = 1 kg·m/s^2. Therefore, we can convert the units:
Effort = (250 J / m) / (1 kg·m/s^2 / 1 N)
Effort = 250 N
Therefore, the effort E required to lift the load is 250 N.

The number of holes in an intrinsic semiconductor

Answer Details

The number of holes in an intrinsic semiconductor is equal to the number of free electrons.

In an intrinsic semiconductor, the valence band is completely filled with electrons. However, due to thermal energy, some of these electrons can gain enough energy to jump to the conduction band, leaving behind holes in the valence band.

For every electron that moves to the conduction band, a hole is created in the valence band. Since the number of electrons and holes is equal, the number of holes in an intrinsic semiconductor is equal to the number of free electrons.

Therefore, the correct option is: is equal to the number of free electrons.

An object is placed 35 cm away from a convex mirror with a focal length of magnitude 15 cm. What is the location of the image?

Answer Details

Let's understand how a convex mirror forms images. In a convex mirror, the center of curvature and the focal point lie behind the mirror. Convex mirrors always produce virtual, upright, and diminished images.
Here, we are given that the object is placed 35 cm away from the convex mirror and the mirror has a focal length of 15 cm.
To find the location of the image, we can use the mirror formula, which states:
1/f = 1/v - 1/u
Where: - f is the focal length of the mirror, - v is the distance of the image from the mirror (negative for virtual image), - u is the distance of the object from the mirror (negative for real object in front of the mirror).
In this case, f = 15 cm and u = -35 cm (negative because the object is in front of the mirror).
Substituting these values into the formula, we get:
1/15 = 1/v - 1/-35
Simplifying the equation, we get:
1/v = 1/15 + 1/35
To add the fractions, we find the common denominator, which is 105. Then, we have:
1/v = (7 + 3)/105
1/v = 10/105
Simplifying further, we get:
1/v = 2/21
To solve for v, we take the reciprocal on both sides of the equation:
v = 21/2
Therefore, the location of the image is 10.5 cm behind the mirror.

A travelling wave of amplitude 0.80 m has a frequency of 16 Hz and a wave speed of 20 ms-1

Calculate the wave number of the wave.

Answer Details

The wave number of a wave is defined as the number of wavelengths per unit distance. It represents the spatial frequency of the wave.
In this case, the wave has a frequency of 16 Hz, which means it completes 16 cycles or oscillations per second. Each cycle corresponds to one wavelength.
The wave speed is given as 20 m/s, which is the speed at which the wave propagates through the medium.
To calculate the wave number, we can use the formula:
Wave number (k) = 2? / wavelength (?)
First, we need to find the wavelength of the wave. We can use the formula:
Wave speed (v) = frequency (f) x wavelength (?)
Rewriting the formula, we have:
Wavelength (?) = wave speed (v) / frequency (f)
Substituting the given values, we have:
Wavelength (?) = 20 m/s / 16 Hz
Simplifying the expression, we get:
Wavelength (?) = 1.25 m
Now, we can calculate the wave number using the formula:
Wave number (k) = 2? / wavelength (?)
Substituting the value of the wavelength, we get:
Wave number (k) = 2? / 1.25 m
Simplifying the expression, we get:
Wave number (k) ? 5.03
Therefore, the wave number of the wave is approximately 5.

A beam of light traveling in water is incident on a glass which is immersed in the water. The incident beam makes an angle of 40o ${\mathrm{<br>}}^{}$ with the normal. Calculate the angle of refraction in the glass.

[Refractive index of water = 1.33, Refractive index of glass = 1.5]

Answer Details

Which of the following is NOT a limitation of experimental measurements?

Answer Details

Instrument resolution is not a limitation of experimental measurements. It is the smallest change in a measured quantity that can be detected by an instrument. While instrument resolution limits the accuracy of a measurement, it is not a limitation of experimental measurements itself.

An explosion occurs at an altitude of 312 m above the ground. If the air temperature is -10.00°C, how long does it take the sound to reach the ground?

[velocity of sound at 0 deg = 331 ms-1]

Answer Details

The pitch of a musical note is determined by the frequency of the sound wave that it produces. If two instruments have the same frequency, which of the following factors will most affect the difference in their pitches?

Answer Details

The frequency of a sound wave is proportional to the tension of the string. If two instruments have the same frequency, but one has a tighter string, then the instrument with the tighter string will have a higher pitch.

The other factors listed, such as the size of the instrument, the material of the instrument, and the shape of the instrument, will also affect the pitch of the instrument, but they will have a smaller effect than the tension of the string.

A 400 N box is being pushed across a level floor at a constant speed by a force P of 100 N at an angle of 30.0° to the horizontal, as shown in the the diagram below. What is the coefficient of kinetic friction between the box and the floor?

Answer Details

W = 400 N; P = 100 N; θ = 30o; μ = ?

Frictional force (Fr) = μR (where R is the normal reaction)

The forces acting along the horizontal direction are Fr and Px

∴ Pcos 30° - Fr = ma (Pcos 30° is acting in the +ve x-axis while Fr in the -ve x-axis)

⇒ 100cos 30° - μR = ma

Since the box is moving at constant speed, its acceleration is zero

⇒ 100cos 30° - μR = 0

⇒ 100cos 30o = μR ----- (i)

The forces acting in the vertical direction are W, Py and R

∴ R - Psin 30° - W = 0 (R is acting upward (+ve) while Py and W are acting downward (-ve) and they are at equilibrium)

⇒ R - 100sin 30° - 400 = 0

⇒ R = 100sin 30° + 400

⇒ R = 50 + 400 = 450 N

From equation (i)

⇒ 100cos 30° = 450μ

⇒μ=100cos30°

  N = 100cos30°450 $\frac{\mathrm{<br>}}{}$

        = μ = 0.19

A piano wire 50 cm long has a total mass of 10 g and its stretched with a tension of 800 N. Find the frequency of the wire when it sounds its third overtone note.

Answer Details

T=800N; I=50cm=0.5m,

m=10g=0.01kg

fundamental freq: fo ${\mathrm{<br>}}_{}$ =?

fo ${\mathrm{<br>}}_{}$ = 121√Tμ $\frac{1}{21}<br>$

μ =m1 $\frac{\mathrm{<br>}}{}$=0.010.5 $\frac{0.01}{0.5}$

⇒ fo ${\mathrm{<br>}}_{}$ =12×0.5 $\frac{1}{2\times 0.5}$√8000.02 $\frac{800}{0.02}$

                  fo ${\mathrm{<br>}}_{}$  ⇒√ 40,000

⇒1st overtone = 2fo ${\mathrm{<br>}}_{}$ =2×200 = 400Hz

⇒2nd overtone =3fo ${\mathrm{<br>}}_{}$ =3×200=600Hz

∴3rd over tone= 4fo ${\mathrm{<br>}}_{}$  =4×200=800Hz

Name the type of equilibrium for each position of the ball

Answer Details

To determine the type of equilibrium for each position of the ball, we need to understand what each type of equilibrium means. 1. **Unstable equilibrium**: This occurs when a small disturbance or change in the system causes the object to move away from its equilibrium position. In other words, the system is "unstable" and will not return to its original position on its own. 2. **Neutral equilibrium**: This occurs when a small disturbance or change in the system does not cause the object to move away from its equilibrium position. The system remains in its new position without any tendency to return to its original position. 3. **Stable equilibrium**: This occurs when a small disturbance or change in the system causes the object to move away from its equilibrium position, but the system has a tendency to return to its original position on its own. Now, let's analyze each position of the ball: A - **Unstable equilibrium**: Suppose the ball is placed at position A. If the ball is slightly disturbed or moved from this position, it will roll away further from its original position and won't come back on its own. Hence, position A is an unstable equilibrium. B - **Stable equilibrium**: Suppose the ball is placed at position B. If the ball is slightly disturbed or moved from this position, it will oscillate back and forth but eventually come back to its original position. This indicates that position B is a stable equilibrium. C - **Neutral equilibrium**: Suppose the ball is placed at position C. If the ball is slightly disturbed or moved from this position, it will stay at the new position without any tendency to return to its original position. This identifies position C as a neutral equilibrium. Based on the explanations above, the correct answer is: A - unstable, B - stable, C - neutral.

A man swung an object of mass 2 kg in a circular path with a rope 1.2 m long. If the object was swung at 120 rev/min, find the tension in the rope.

Answer Details

To find the tension in the rope, we can first use the formula for centripetal force, which is given by:
F_centripetal = (m * v^2) / r
where: - F_centripetal is the centripetal force - m is the mass of the object - v is the velocity of the object - r is the radius of the circular path
In this case, the mass of the object (m) is given as 2 kg and the radius (r) is given as 1.2 m.
Now, to find the velocity (v), we need to convert the given value of 120 rev/min to m/s.
Here's how we can do that:
1. First, convert the revolutions per minute (rev/min) to revolutions per second (rev/s) by dividing by 60 (since there are 60 seconds in a minute):
120 rev/min = 120/60 rev/s = 2 rev/s
2. Next, we need to convert the revolutions per second to the linear velocity in meters per second (m/s). To do this, we need to find the circumference of the circular path.
The circumference of a circle is given by the formula:
C = 2πr where r is the radius of the circular path.
Substituting the value of the radius (r = 1.2 m) into the formula, we have:
C = 2π * 1.2 = 2.4π Now, to find the linear velocity (v), we can multiply the circumference (C) by the number of revolutions per second (2 rev/s):
v = C * rev/s = 2.4π * 2 = 4.8π m/s
Now that we have the values of m (2 kg) and v (4.8π m/s), we can substitute them into the centripetal force formula to find the tension in the rope:
F_centripetal = (m * v^2) / r = (2 * (4.8π)^2) / 1.2
Simplifying further:
F_centripetal = (2 * 23.04π^2) / 1.2
F_centripetal = 38.4π^2
Finally, to get a numerical value for the tension in the rope, we can approximate the value of π to 3.14 and calculate the centripetal force:
F_centripetal ≈ 38.4 * 3.14^2 ≈ 379 N
Therefore, the tension in the rope is approximately 379 N.
Therefore, the correct answer is 379.

Three forces with magnitudes 16 N, 12 N and 21 N are shown in the diagram below. Determine the magnitude of their resultant force and angle with the x-axis

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The branch of physics that deals with the motion of objects and the forces acting on them is called:

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The branch of physics that deals with the motion of objects and the forces acting on them is called mechanics.

Mechanics is the foundation of physics that studies how objects move and interact under the influence of forces. It encompasses both the study of the motion of macroscopic objects, such as cars and planets, and the behavior of microscopic particles, such as atoms and molecules.

Mechanics is divided into two main branches:

• Classical mechanics: This branch deals with the motion of objects that are larger than atoms and are not moving near the speed of light. It includes the well-known laws of motion formulated by Sir Isaac Newton, such as Newton's laws of motion, which describe how the velocity and acceleration of an object are related to the forces acting upon it.
• Quantum mechanics: This branch deals with the behavior of particles at the atomic and subatomic levels. It is based on probabilities and wave-particle duality, rather than classical concepts of motion and force. Quantum mechanics is essential for our understanding of the behavior of electrons, photons, and other quantum particles.

Therefore, when referring to the branch of physics that specifically focuses on the motion of objects and the forces acting on them, the correct answer is mechanics.

A simple pendulum, has a period of 5.77 seconds. When the pendulum is shortened by 3 m, the period is 4.60 seconds. Calculate the new length of the pendulum

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Which of the following is NOT an example of elementary modern physics?

Answer Details

Classical mechanics is a branch of physics that deals with the motion of macroscopic objects. It is based on the principles of Newton's laws of motion and is not considered to be part of elementary modern physics.

The other three options, quantum mechanics, special relativity, and nuclear physics, are all considered to be part of elementary modern physics because they deal with the behavior of matter and energy at the atomic and subatomic levels.

A parallel plate capacitor separated by an air gap is made of 0.8m2 tin plates and 20 mm apart. It is connected to 120 V battery. What is the charge on each plate?

Take εo = 8.85 * 10-12 Fm−1

Answer Details

To calculate the charge on each plate of a parallel plate capacitor, we can use the formula Q = CV, where Q is the charge, C is the capacitance, and V is the voltage applied. The capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor can be calculated using the formula C = εA/d, where C is the capacitance, ε is the permittivity of the medium (in this case, air), A is the area of each plate, and d is the distance between the plates. Given: Area of each plate (A) = 0.8 m^2 Distance between the plates (d) = 20 mm = 0.02 m Permittivity of air (ε) = 8.85 x 10^-12 F/m Using the formula for capacitance, we can calculate C: C = εA/d = (8.85 x 10^-12 F/m)(0.8 m^2)/(0.02 m) = 8.85 x 10^-12 F/m * 40 F = 3.54 x 10^-10 F Now, we can use the formula Q = CV to calculate the charge on each plate: Q = (3.54 x 10^-10 F)(120 V) = 4.25 x 10^-8 C = 42.5 x 10^-9 C = 42.5 nC Therefore, the charge on each plate of the parallel plate capacitor is **42.5 nC**.

Which of the following types of electromagnetic waves is used in night vision goggles?

Answer Details

Night vision goggles use infrared waves to enable the user to see in the dark.

Infrared waves are a type of electromagnetic radiation that have longer wavelengths than visible light. They fall between the visible and microwave regions on the electromagnetic spectrum. Unlike visible light, which is visible to the human eye, infrared waves cannot be seen without the use of specialized devices such as night vision goggles.

When it is dark, objects do not emit visible light that can be detected by the human eye. However, they do emit heat in the form of infrared radiation. Night vision goggles work by detecting and amplifying this infrared radiation, which is then converted into visible light that can be seen by the user.

The goggles contain an image intensifier tube that is sensitive to infrared radiation. This tube amplifies the incoming infrared light and converts it into an image that can be seen through the goggles. The resulting image appears green because the human eye is more sensitive to green light.

Therefore, to see in the dark, night vision goggles use infrared waves to detect and amplify the infrared radiation emitted by objects. This enables the user to have enhanced vision in low-light conditions or complete darkness.

A missile is launched with a speed of 75 ms-1 at an angle of 22° above the surface of a warship. Find the horizontal range achieved by the missile. Ignore the effects of air resistance.

[Take g = 10 ms-1]

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A lorry accelerates uniformly in a straight line with acceleration of 4ms-1 and covers a distance of 250 m in a time interval of 10 s. How far will it travel in the next 10 s?

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A wire of radius 0.2 mm is extended by 0.5% of its length when supported by a load of 1.5 kg. Determine the Young's modulus for the material of the wire.

[Take g = 10 ms-2]

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The half life of a radioactive material is 12 days. Calculate the decay constant.

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The decay constant of a radioactive material represents the probability that an atom of the material will decay in a unit of time. In this case, we are given the half-life of the material which is the time it takes for half of the radioactive atoms to decay.
The relationship between the decay constant (λ) and the half-life (T½) is given by the formula:
λ = ln(2) / T½
where ln(2) is the natural logarithm of 2.
To find the decay constant, we can plug in the given half-life value into the formula. In this case, the half-life is 12 days.
λ = ln(2) / 12
Using a calculator, we can calculate the value of ln(2) ≈ 0.6931.
λ = 0.6931 / 12 ≈ 0.05775 day^(-1)
Therefore, the decay constant for this radioactive material is approximately 0.05775 day^(-1).
The correct answer is 0.05775 day^(-1).

In the diagram above, if the south poles of two magnets stroke a steel bar, the polarities at X and Y will respectively be

Answer Details

The polarities at X and Y would be north and north.

An open-tube mercury manometer is used to measure the pressure in a gas tank. When the atmospheric pressure is 101,325 Pa
, what is the absolute pressure in Pa
 in the tank if the height of the mercury in the open tube is 25 cm higher

Answer Details

Which of the following is/are not true about the heat capacity of a substance?
(i) It is an intensive property
(ii) Its S.I unit is jK−1
(iii) It is an extensive property
(iv) Its S.I unit is jkg−1

Answer Details

The correct answer is (ii) and (iii) only. The heat capacity of a substance is a measure of how much heat energy is required to raise the temperature of the substance by a certain amount. It is an important property in thermodynamics. (i) It is not true that heat capacity is an intensive property. Intensive properties do not depend on the size or amount of the substance. For example, density and temperature are intensive properties. However, heat capacity does depend on the size or amount of the substance. The heat capacity of a substance increases with its mass or amount. Therefore, statement (i) is false. (ii) It is true that the SI unit of heat capacity is joules per kelvin (J/K). Heat capacity is defined as the amount of heat energy (in joules) required to raise the temperature of a substance by 1 degree kelvin. Therefore, statement (ii) is true. (iii) It is not true that heat capacity is an extensive property. Extensive properties depend on the size or amount of the substance. Examples of extensive properties include mass and volume. However, heat capacity is an intensive property as explained earlier. Therefore, statement (iii) is false. (iv) It is true that the SI unit of heat capacity is joules per kilogram per kelvin (J/(kg·K)). This unit is commonly used for specific heat capacity, which is the heat capacity per unit mass. Therefore, statement (iv) is true. In summary, the correct statement is that (ii) and (iii) are not true about the heat capacity of a substance.

The electrolyte used in the Nickel-Iron (NiFe) accumulator is

Answer Details

The electrolyte used in the Nickel-Iron (NiFe) accumulator is **potassium hydroxide solution**.

In a Nickel-Iron accumulator, the electrolyte is the substance that allows the flow of electric current between the electrodes. It is essential for the proper functioning of the accumulator.

Potassium hydroxide solution is the ideal electrolyte for the NiFe accumulator due to its properties. It has good electrical conductivity, which means it allows the movement of ions between the positive and negative electrodes, enabling the flow of electrons and facilitating the charging and discharging process.

In addition to good conductivity, potassium hydroxide solution also has other beneficial properties for the NiFe accumulator. It is stable, ensuring a longer lifespan for the accumulator. It is also less prone to self-discharge, meaning the accumulator can retain its charge for a longer period without significant loss.

Therefore, the electrolyte used in the Nickel-Iron (NiFe) accumulator is potassium hydroxide solution.